EC-Council 312-50v13 Exam Questions
Certified Ethical Hacker v13 (Page 7 )

Updated On: 12-May-2026

John wants to send Marie an email that includes sensitive information, and he does not trust the network that he is connected to. Marie gives him the idea of using PGP. What should John do to communicate correctly using this type of encryption?

  1. Use his own private key to encrypt the message.
  2. Use his own public key to encrypt the message.
  3. Use Marie's private key to encrypt the message.
  4. Use Marie's public key to encrypt the message.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

John should encrypt with Marie’s public key so only she can decrypt with her private key, ensuring confidentiality over an untrusted network.
A) Using his private key to encrypt is incorrect because private keys are for signing, not confidentiality; anyone with Marie’s public key could decrypt a message if he signed, not encrypted with his private key.
B) Using his public key to encrypt is incorrect because recipients use the sender’s public key for verification or the recipient’s public key for confidentiality; his public key cannot protect Marie’s data.
C) Using Marie’s private key to encrypt is incorrect because private keys must remain secret; encryption with her private key would allow anyone with her public key to decrypt, not secure.
D) Correct: Marie’s public key encrypts, ensuring only Marie can decrypt with her private key.



In the Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) v3.1 severity ratings, what range does medium vulnerability fall in?

  1. 4.0-6.0
  2. 3.9-6.9
  3. 3.0-6.9
  4. 4.0-6.9

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Medium severity in CVSS v3.1 falls in the 4.0 to 6.9 range, which corresponds to option D. A) 4.0-6.0 is incorrect because the upper bound includes up to 6.9. B) 3.9-6.9 starts below 4.0, misclassifying any score between 3.0 and 3.9 as medium. C) 3.0-6.9 includes scores below 4.0, misclassifying low severity as medium. Therefore only D precisely matches the official CVSS v3.1 medium range.



Bill is a network administrator. He wants to eliminate unencrypted traffic inside his company's network. He decides to setup a SPAN port and capture all traffic to the datacenter. He immediately discovers unencrypted traffic in port UDP 161.

What protocol is this port using and how can he secure that traffic?

  1. RPC and the best practice is to disable RPC completely.
  2. SNMP and he should change it to SNMP V3.
  3. SNMP and he should change it to SNMP V2, which is encrypted.
  4. It is not necessary to perform any actions, as SNMP is not carrying important information.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

SNMP is using UDP port 161; upgrading to SNMPv3 provides authentication and privacy, securing the traffic.
A) RPC is unrelated to UDP 161 in common management traffic; RPC is typically on other ports and is not the correct protocol here.
B) Correct: SNMP with SNMPv3 offers encryption, authentication, and access control to prevent eavesdropping.
C) SNMPv2 is not encrypted; it lacks strong security features, so upgrading to v2 would not secure traffic.
D) Incorrect: SNMP often carries sensitive device information; assuming no action is unsafe, and encryption is recommended.



Consider the following Nmap output:



What command-line parameter could you use to determine the type and version number of the web server?

  1. -sV
  2. -sS
  3. -Pn
  4. -V

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Determining the web server type and version requires service version detection, which is enabled by -sV in Nmap.
A) -sV - Enables version detection to identify service and version information for open ports.
B) -sS - Performs a TCP SYN scan; does not reveal service versions.
C) -Pn - Skips host discovery; does not impact version detection capability.
D) -V - Typically prints version information for the tool itself, not the remote service.
Note: Use -sV with or without -sV --version-all for more exhaustive fingerprinting if needed.



Bob was recently hired by a medical company after it experienced a major cyber security breach. Many patients are complaining that their personal medical records are fully exposed on the Internet and someone can find them with a simple Google search. Bob's boss is very worried because of regulations that protect those data.

Which of the following regulations is mostly violated?

  1. PCI DSS
  2. PII
  3. ISO 2002
  4. HIPPA/PHI

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

A violation of HIPAA/PHI is most relevant because it protects patient health information and requires safeguarding ePHI; publicly exposed records constitute improper disclosure and failure of access controls.
A) PCI DSS focuses on payment card data, not general health records.
B) PII is a broad data descriptor, not a regulatory framework with specific health privacy requirements.
C) ISO 2002 is not an applicable standard for health data privacy; it’s a misnamed/older standard not enforced for PHI.
D) HIPAA/PHI correctly addresses the privacy, security, and breach consequences for protected health information.



Infecting a system with malware and using phishing to gain credentials to a system or web application are examples of which phase of the ethical hacking methodology?

  1. Scanning
  2. Gaining access
  3. Maintaining access
  4. Reconnaissance

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

A method of gaining unauthorized foothold using malware and phishing corresponds to breaking into the target, i.e., gaining access.
A) Scanning
B) Gaining access
C) Maintaining access
D) Reconnaissance



Larry, a security professional in an organization, has noticed some abnormalities in the user accounts on a web server. To thwart evolving attacks, he decided to harden the security of the web server by adopting a few countermeasures to secure the accounts on the web server.

Which of the following countermeasures must Larry implement to secure the user accounts on the web server?

  1. Retain all unused modules and application extensions.
  2. Limit the administrator or root-level access to the minimum number of users.
  3. Enable all non-interactive accounts that should exist but do not require interactive login.
  4. Enable unused default user accounts created during the installation of an OS.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

A concise justification: Reducing privileged access minimizes the risk of abuse or escalation, aligning with principle of least privilege for web server accounts.
A) Retain all unused modules and application extensions — Incorrect: leaves attack surface open; unnecessary services increase risk.
B) Limit administrator or root-level access to the minimum number of users — Correct: enforces least privilege and reduces credential compromise impact.
C) Enable all non-interactive accounts that should exist but do not require interactive login — Incorrect: unnecessary accounts provide footholds and potential misuse.
D) Enable unused default user accounts created during OS installation — Incorrect: expands attack surface; should be disabled.



There are multiple cloud deployment options depending on how isolated a customer's resources are from those of other customers. Shared environments share the costs and allow each customer to enjoy lower operations expenses. One solution is for a customer to join with a group of users or organizations to share a cloud environment.

What is this cloud deployment option called?

  1. Private
  2. Community
  3. Public
  4. Hybrid

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

A community cloud deployment option is used when a group of users or organizations shares a cloud environment with common concerns, enabling joint governance and cost sharing while maintaining a level of isolation appropriate to the community’s requirements.
A) Private is dedicated to a single organization, not shared with others.
C) Public is owned by a cloud provider and shared among many unrelated tenants, not a defined community.
D) Hybrid combines private and public clouds, not a shared community model.



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