Adobe AD0-E104 Exam Prep
Adobe Experience Manager Architect (Page 2 )

spl 
error AND host=WWW3 
status=404 OR status=500 
NOT source=access.log

• Quotation marks are used for exact phrases or values containing spaces.
• Parentheses group parts of a Boolean expression, but they are not required for every Boolean search.

• Third-party enterprise application with embedded AI: The provider manages most security controls. The customer mainly manages users, data, and configuration.
• Application using an existing third-party FM: The customer controls the application and its inputs/outputs, but the provider controls the underlying model and infrastructure.
• Fine-tuning a third-party FM: The customer has additional responsibility for training data, data protection, and model behavior, but still depends on the provider’s base model and platform.
• Building and training a model from scratch: The customer controls the model, training data, application, deployment, and many security safeguards. This creates the greatest security ownership.

• Access controls — ensuring only authorized users can access it.
• Encryption — protecting the data if it is intercepted or exposed.

• SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language): Commonly used for enterprise SSO between an identity provider and cloud applications. It sends signed authentication assertions to the service provider.
• RADIUS: Primarily used for centralized authentication to network devices, VPNs, and wireless networks.
• EAP: An authentication framework commonly used with network access technologies; it is not typically the SSO protocol for SaaS applications.
• OpenID: Related to identity authentication, but traditional enterprise SSO questions involving cloud applications generally expect SAML. OpenID Connect is a newer authentication layer built on OAuth 2.0.

• Remote and global work: Access is based on the approved device, not a specific office or geographic location.
• Seamless login: Users may not need to repeatedly enter credentials on a recognized device.
• Limited equipment: It uses devices employees already have rather than requiring separate hardware.

• Geotagging: Restricts access based on location and may prevent legitimate remote work.
• Smart cards: Require issuing and managing additional physical equipment.
• Time-based logins: Limit access by time and do not provide a seamless authentication experience.

• Customer information must not be revealed ? PII Detection
• Malicious instructions embedded in images/documents must be blocked ? Prompt Shields

• If the question allows multiple selections, choose PII Detection and Prompt Shields.
• If it requires one selection specifically for the image-based threat, choose Prompt Shields.

• The S3 bucket as an origin for static content
• The Application Load Balancer (ALB) as an origin for dynamic content
• An Amazon Route 53 alias record pointing the application domain to CloudFront

Why this works

• Static data: CloudFront caches objects from S3 at edge locations, reducing latency for users worldwide.
• Dynamic data: CloudFront forwards requests that require application processing to the ALB. It can also maintain persistent connections and use the AWS global edge network to improve delivery performance.
• One domain: CloudFront behaviors can route different path patterns to different origins—for example, /static/* to S3 and other paths to the ALB.

Why the other options are incorrect

• Global Accelerator is designed primarily for accelerating traffic to applications with endpoints such as ALBs, not for caching S3 content.
• Using separate domains or splitting static and dynamic traffic adds unnecessary complexity.
• CloudFront already provides the required global edge distribution and caching, so combining it with Global Accelerator is unnecessary here.

• Admin access to the deployment pipeline
• Contributor access to the Development and Test workspaces
• Viewer access to the Production workspace

• Reporting relationships
• Organizational structures
• Leadership styles
• Team maturity
• Individual and group behavior
• Communication and motivation

• Acquire Project Team: Focuses on obtaining the people needed for the project.
• Develop Project Team: Focuses on improving team skills, relationships, and performance.
• Manage Project Team: Focuses on tracking performance, resolving issues, and managing changes within the team.

• A — Correct: Identify the data required by Salesforce, its dependencies, and how it should be validated. Verification scripts help confirm record counts, relationships, field mappings, and data integrity after migration.
• D — Correct: Use a full sandbox and perform trial migrations using realistic—or appropriately masked—legacy data. This exposes transformation, volume, dependency, and integration issues before production cutover.
• B — Less appropriate: Phased user migration and parallel operation primarily address user adoption and rollout risk, not the technical risks of data migration.
• C — Less appropriate: Although sandbox testing and integration testing are valuable, the option emphasizes test-data generation rather than validating the migration with representative legacy data. “A full sandbox for all systems” may also be impractical.

CIMA P3 topics

• IT governance and systems strategy
• Systems development and implementation
• Change and project governance
• Strategic and business risk

• A — Plan for new systems: The committee should help identify and prioritise systems requirements and ensure planned systems support organisational needs.
• D — Consider competitive issues: New information systems may affect Y’s competitive position, service quality and efficiency. These strategic implications should be considered.
• E — Ensure the system meets company goals: This is a key governance responsibility. The committee should ensure the project remains aligned with Y’s objectives and delivers business value.

• B — Develop new systems: Detailed system development should be performed by IT specialists and project teams, not the steering committee.
• C — Manage the project: The project manager should handle day-to-day project management. The steering committee should provide oversight, challenge and key decisions, rather than manage daily activities.

• A is incorrect: Flow Debugger is for debugging Salesforce Flows, not Trust Layer masking.
• B is incomplete/misleading: Requesting audit data may be part of reviewing the results, but collection and storage must first be enabled.
• C is correct: It describes the initial validation step.

• C — Before update
• D — Before insert

apex 
trigger AccountTrigger on Account (before insert, before update) { 
    for (Account acct : Trigger.new) { 
        acct.Description = 'Updated automatically'; 
    } 
}

• In after insert and after update, Trigger.new records are read-only.
• Use after triggers when you need the record’s final database Id or want to create/update related records.
• Attempting to change a field directly in an after trigger causes a read-only error.

• Labels control access and protection, not blanket exclusion.
• If the user has permission to open a labeled file—especially if the label allows authenticated users to view it—Copilot can use that file in a summary.
• If the label applies encryption and the user lacks the required usage rights, Copilot should not use the file or reveal its contents.
• Copilot honors the user’s existing permissions, so it should not expose labeled content to an unauthorized user.

• A — Tables
• B — Named file formats
• C — Schemas
• E — Databases

Why these are correct

• Tables: Can be cloned using CREATE TABLE ... CLONE. The clone initially uses zero-copy cloning, so storage is shared until changes are made.
• Named file formats: Can be cloned as database objects, preserving the file-format definition.
• Schemas: A schema and its eligible objects can be cloned.
• Databases: A database and its eligible schemas and objects can be cloned.

Why the others are incorrect

• Shares: A share is an account-level data-sharing object, not a normal cloneable database object.
• Users: Users are security principals and cannot be cloned with CLONE.

• File is shared externally ? Access level

• File is labeled “Internal only” ? Sensitivity label

1. The specific table — for example, incident
2. The parent table — for example, task
3. The wildcard table — *, which applies broadly

• Response and resolution time frames
• Availability or uptime requirements
• Performance targets
• Support obligations
• Penalties for failing to meet requirements

• SOW (Statement of Work): Defines the project’s scope, tasks, and deliverables.
• MOA (Memorandum of Agreement): Describes cooperation and responsibilities between parties.
• MOU (Memorandum of Understanding): Records a general mutual understanding, usually without detailed enforceable service targets.

1. x = -100
2. -100 < x < 100
3. 100 = x < 1000
4. x = 1000

• -500 ? class 1
• 0 ? class 2
• 100 ? class 3
• 1000 ? class 4

text 
user<TAB>action<TAB>status

text 
user|action|status

• Colons: Although colons commonly appear in log data, they are not a supported delimiter choice in the FX workflow described by this exam question.
• Spaces: Spaces are not treated as a supported delimiter for this extraction method; ordinary text often contains variable spacing.

• 255.255.255.128 = /25: 128 total, 126 usable
• 255.255.255.192 = /26: 64 total, 62 usable
• 255.255.255.224 = /27: 32 total, 30 usable
• 255.255.255.240 = /28: 16 total, 14 usable

• One for the network address
• One for the broadcast address

• 8 total addresses
• 6 usable addresses
• Mask: 255.255.255.248

• Endpoint Manager: manages hosts and sensor-related settings.
• Falcon Investigator: supports investigation and analysis, but does not necessarily grant RTR access.
• Remediation Manager: handles remediation-related actions rather than interactive host access.

• Matching hashes: The software likely has not changed.
• Different hashes: The software was modified or corrupted.

• Encryption: Protects confidentiality by making data unreadable; it does not primarily detect changes.
• Baselines: Define an approved system or configuration state, but they are not the specific integrity mechanism here.
• Tokenization: Replaces sensitive data with substitute values.

• Due diligence: Investigating and evaluating a third party before entering into or continuing a business relationship.
• Attestation: An independent party provides assurance about an organization’s claims or controls. A SOC 2 examination is an example of an attestation engagement, but the analyst requesting and reviewing the report is performing due diligence.
• Internal audit: Reviews the organization’s own internal controls.
• Penetration testing: Actively tests systems for exploitable vulnerabilities.

• Streams — track change data for tables or views.
• External tables — reference data stored in an external cloud storage location.

• Role — account-level security object.
• Warehouse — account-level compute resource.
• User — account-level security object.
• Share — account-level object used to share data.

• HTTPS: Secure web traffic, not general command-line server administration.
• SNMPv3: Secure network monitoring and management, not interactive server login.
• RDP: Provides graphical remote desktop access. It can be secure, but it is not the direct replacement for Telnet in this scenario.
• SMTP: Used to send email.

• Accept: Acknowledging the risk without taking additional action.
• Transfer: Moving the risk’s financial impact to a third party, such as an insurer.
• Mitigate: Reducing the likelihood or impact through controls, such as patching or employee training.
• Avoid: Eliminating the activity that creates the risk.

• Compute: Not used; no virtual warehouse is required.
• Data Storage: Not scanned again.
• Metadata: May help Snowflake manage and validate cached results, but it is not the Snowflake architectural layer identified as serving the request.
• Cloud Services: Handles query coordination, metadata services, authentication, and result-cache access.

• Deficiency found before patient use: usually does not require an adverse-event report because no patient exposure occurred.
• Event caused solely by the patient’s condition: may not be reportable if the device did not contribute.
• Malfunction protection operated correctly: generally exempt when the device’s safety mechanism worked as intended and prevented harm.

• contoso.onmicrosoft.com
• contoso1.onmicrosoft.com

• onmicrosoft.com domains: Maximum of five per tenant.
• Custom domains: Domains that your organization owns and verifies in Microsoft 365.

• Custom domains: Supported by Basic and higher tiers.
• Dedicated compute: Basic and Standard use dedicated virtual machine instances; Free and Shared use shared infrastructure.
• Load balancing between instances: Standard provides scaling across multiple instances with load balancing.
• Storage: Standard provides more storage than Basic.
• Cost: Standard is the least expensive option that satisfies all the stated requirements.

• Free/Shared: Use shared compute and have limited features; they don’t meet the dedicated-compute requirement.
• Basic: Provides dedicated compute and custom domains, but does not provide the required Standard-level multi-instance capabilities in the exam’s feature comparison.

• terraform apply
• terraform destroy

• A. IDS attack signatures: An IDS mainly detects suspicious network traffic. It is not the best control for scanning uploaded documents.
• C. Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers and can improve availability, but does not specifically detect malware.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications from attacks such as SQL injection and command injection. It may inspect web requests, but malware scanning of PDF files is not its primary function.

• A is correct: It establishes the revised dates and identifies the effect on the critical path.
• B is premature: Stakeholders should be informed after the impact has been assessed and the updated schedule is understood.
• C is not automatically appropriate: Fast-tracking may introduce additional risk and should be considered only after analyzing schedule options.
• D is premature: Adding resources may not resolve a dependency and could increase costs without addressing the actual constraint.

• Error correction (ECC): Improves data reliability but does not maximize bandwidth.
• RAM voltage: Increasing voltage may affect stability or speed, but it is not the primary method for increasing module bandwidth.
• Physical module size: Refers to the capacity or form factor of the RAM, not its data-transfer bandwidth.

• Maximum response and resolution times
• Expected uptime or availability
• Performance requirements
• Escalation procedures
• Consequences for failing to meet requirements

• SOW: Defines a project’s scope, tasks, deliverables, and schedule.
• MOA: Documents specific responsibilities agreed upon by two parties.
• MOU: Records a general understanding or intent to cooperate.

• Microsoft manages the physical datacenter, hardware, and virtualization.
• You manage the virtual machine’s operating system, installed software, configuration, and data.
• You choose the VM size, storage, networking, and scaling options.

• SaaS: You consume a complete application managed by the provider, such as Microsoft 365.
• PaaS: You deploy applications without managing the underlying operating system or VM infrastructure, such as Azure App Service.

• MFA: Protects sign-in and authentication.
• Azure Key Vault: Protects deployment secrets and credentials.
• Answer: No (B).

• Note the question number before leaving—for example, Question 38.
• Use the exam’s question navigator or Back/Previous button to return to that number.
• If you close or refresh the page, your position may not be saved, depending on the site. Reopen the page and select the question number again.
• Avoid using the browser’s Back button if it causes the exam page to reload; use the exam’s built-in navigation instead.

• Azure Machine Learning Studio is designed to build, test, train, and deploy machine-learning models, including predictive analytics.
• Azure Cosmos DB is a globally distributed NoSQL database. It can store data used by an AI solution, but it is not the primary service for developing and deploying predictive models.
• Therefore, the appropriate recommendation is Azure Machine Learning Studio, as shown in Question 15.

• Due diligence: Investigating and evaluating a third party before entering a business relationship.
• Attestation: An independent auditor’s examination and formal report—such as the SOC 2 report itself. The analyst is reviewing the attestation, not performing it.
• Internal audit: Examines the organization’s own processes and controls.
• Penetration testing: Actively tests systems for exploitable vulnerabilities.

• Allow the team to identify the causes of delays.
• Encourage improvements to processes, tools, and collaboration.
• Help remove impediments without dictating solutions.
• Protect quality and maintain a sustainable pace.

• A: An impediment log may help track issues, but merely recording them does not resolve the root causes.
• B: Directing teams toward solutions conflicts with the agile principle of a self-managing team.
• C: Adding impediments to the product backlog may delay their resolution and incorrectly treats them as product features.

• Plenum: Describes a fire-resistant cable jacket rating, not a transmission medium or speed.
• Ethernet: Describes a networking technology; Ethernet can use copper or fiber, so the term alone does not identify the fastest cable type.
• DAC (Direct Attach Copper): Uses copper and is typically intended for short-distance, high-speed connections in data centers.

• Sustainability
• Performance efficiency
• Reliability

• Suporta domínios personalizados.
• Oferece 50 GB de armazenamento — suficiente para os 10 GB de cada aplicação.
• Usa instâncias de computação dedicadas.
• Inclui balanceamento de carga entre instâncias.
• É o plano mais econômico entre as opções que atendem a todos esses requisitos.

• Domínios personalizados.
• Armazenamento suficiente.
• Instâncias dedicadas.
• Balanceamento de carga.
• Menor custo entre os planos que atendem a tudo.

• Frequency/likelihood = how often or how likely the risk is to occur.
• Severity/impact = how damaging or costly the consequences would be.

• A minor equipment fault occurring frequently may have high frequency but low severity.
• A major cyberattack occurring rarely may have low frequency but high severity.
• A risk that happens often and causes substantial losses has high frequency and high severity.

• Structure requirements documents
• Draft user stories and acceptance criteria
• Create templates for functional and nonfunctional requirements
• Turn natural-language descriptions into organized documentation or implementation examples

• A: “Automatically generating detailed requirements documents” overstates Copilot’s role; it assists but does not independently determine complete requirements.
• C: /help provides guidance about Copilot features, not reliable requirements-conflict detection.
• D: Stakeholder communication and meetings remain human responsibilities.

• C: Develop the rule in the Rules Editor, define the events, match, and condition sections, then use the test rule feature. This directly validates the YARA-L rule without enabling it in production.
• A: UDM Search can help investigate data and refine filters, but it does not fully test YARA-L logic—especially complex event joins, match windows, and conditions.

• Azure DevOps Analytics views are accessed through the Power BI Azure DevOps (Boards only) connector.
• This connector authenticates directly to Azure DevOps Services and lets you select an Analytics view.
• Analytics views allow filtering and shaping data in the cloud before Power BI loads it.
• Azure DevOps Server (Boards only) is for an on-premises Azure DevOps Server instance, not Azure DevOps cloud.
• A generic OData Feed connection can access OData endpoints, but it is not the purpose-built connector for Azure DevOps Analytics views.
• “OData queries” describes the underlying technology or query approach, not the most appropriate Azure DevOps connector choice here.