An Adobe Commerce developer is using a view model within an existing block:

What are two ways to access the view model class in the template? (Choose two.)

$block->getviewModel()
$block->getData( ' view_model ' )
$block->getData( ' viewModel ' )
$block->viewModel()

Answer(s): B,C

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QUESTION: 3

An Adobe Commerce developer needs to reposition a block before all other elements of its nesting level.
Which attribute value can be used to accomplish this in the Layout XML?

before='+'
before=' -'
after="-"

Answer(s): B

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QUESTION: 4

An Adobe Commerce developer was asked to customize a JavaScript component which is written as a function.
How would the developer extend the native JavaScript function?

Answer(s): C

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An Adobe Commerce developer wants to use LESS variables to make the default color of the text links match the default color of the body text.
While keeping upgradability in mind, how would the developer make this modification?

Answer(s): C

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Jiwani on: December 19, 2024
Good way to know about what the questions would be in a real exam.
Anonymous

Rajesh Cahduhary on: December 04, 2023
mostly wrong answer example: question no 16 answer should be A
UNITED STATES

Kmem on: June 25, 2026
Cramming with this site saved me time and some money since I could tackle the exam slowly but still passed it in the end.
Canada

Scsi on: July 29, 2026
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Ireland

Thread on: September 03, 2026
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Finland

Sandbox on: August 05, 2026
Slow progress man but reviewed long enough to pass.
United Kingdom

Shebang on: September 13, 2026
The exam was tough but these questions were spot on so I passed.
South Korea

Anycast on: August 30, 2026
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Canada

Vimrc on: July 16, 2026
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Switzerland

Iptables on: July 27, 2026
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Raid on: July 23, 2026
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Bgp on: June 18, 2026
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Tcpdump on: September 07, 2026
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Monaco

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Stdout on: July 03, 2026
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Lithuania

Overclock on: August 03, 2026
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Paging on: July 08, 2026
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United States

HUng on: September 09, 2026
It very good.
Ho Chi Minh City, Vietnam

Sandbox on: August 25, 2026
I was shaky at first but these practice questions really helped me get ready.
Australia

Microcode on: June 19, 2026
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United Kingdom

Stdout on: July 18, 2026
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Belgium

Hardlink on: August 22, 2026
Slow going but review time paid off.
Denmark

Microcode on: September 09, 2026
This site was great for cramming and saving me time and money as I slowly worked through these questions and nailed the exam.
Norway

VlanId on: August 12, 2026
Took my time with these questions slowly but surely got better passed the exam at last.
UAE

Bgp on: August 28, 2026
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Argentina

Endianness on: July 23, 2026
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Ireland

Systemd on: August 09, 2026
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France

Bgp on: August 23, 2026
The exam was stressful but prep helped. Glad I used this site.
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Packet on: September 07, 2026
This exam stressed me out but good prep. Made it a bit easier to pass.
Netherlands

Bios on: August 10, 2026
Studying was bit slow but in the end AI assistant on this site helped me pass.
Costa Rica

Nullptr on: June 18, 2026
Practice questions got me there.
Austria

Sshd on: August 19, 2026
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Sweden

Chmod on: June 24, 2026
The exam was tricky but do-able with prep.
Brazil

Bitmask on: September 18, 2026
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PktLoss on: September 08, 2026
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Sshd on: August 02, 2026
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Japan

Systemd on: July 13, 2026
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Estonia

Opcode on: July 22, 2026
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Runlevel on: July 09, 2026
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Canada

Payload on: July 11, 2026
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Nginx on: July 30, 2026
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Mexico

Pids on: August 05, 2026
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Belgium

Pdu on: June 19, 2026
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Norway

Initd on: September 10, 2026
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New Zealand

Iptables on: August 10, 2026
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Portugal

Bytecode on: July 01, 2026
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Belgium

Sysctl on: July 21, 2026
Didn't feel confident at first but the practice questions here really helped me learn.
Latvia

AI Explanation - verified by User8125 on: September 09, 2026
Question 49:
La risposta corretta è C. DRP (Disaster Recovery Plan).
Un DRP descrive le procedure da seguire dopo un disastro per ripristinare sistemi, infrastrutture e servizi essenziali. Nel caso della municipalità, il tornado ha distrutto il data center principale, quindi il personale deve attivare il piano di disaster recovery, ad esempio utilizzando un sito alternativo o sistemi di backup.
Le altre opzioni:

BCP (Business Continuity Plan): è più ampio e mira a mantenere le funzioni essenziali dell’organizzazione durante un’interruzione. Il DRP è una componente più specifica del BCP.

Communication plan: stabilisce come comunicare con dipendenti, cittadini e altre parti interessate, ma non ripristina i sistemi.

IRP (Incident Response Plan): gestisce la risposta iniziale a un incidente di sicurezza, come un attacco informatico, non principalmente il recupero da un disastro fisico.

Da ricordare: DRP = ripristino dopo un disastro; BCP = continuità complessiva delle attività.
Rome, Italy

AI Explanation - verified by User2843 on: October 01, 2026
Question 4:
Correct answers: A and B — CPU and Memory.
A VM Class in vSphere with Supervisor defines the standard hardware configuration for Supervisor-managed VMs. The core resources are:

CPU: Number of virtual CPUs and, where applicable, CPU reservations.

Memory: Amount of memory and memory reservations.

When a VM is deployed using that class, it receives the defined CPU and memory configuration.
The other options are not the best answers here:

Network interface: Usually configured through the VM or workload networking configuration.

PCI devices: Specialized hardware and not a standard VM Class resource in this context.

Storage: Typically selected through storage policies or the VM’s storage configuration.

Therefore, choose A and B.
Cairo, Egypt

AI Explanation - verified by User1290 on: September 10, 2026
Question 33:
Correct answer: C — A logical interface used for the routing of VLANs
An SVI (Switched Virtual Interface) is a virtual Layer 3 interface associated with a VLAN. It is not a physical port.
For example, a Layer 3 switch might use:

VLAN 10 for data

VLAN 20 for voice

Each VLAN can have its own SVI, such as a default gateway for devices in that VLAN. The switch can then perform inter-VLAN routing while keeping voice and data traffic logically separated.
Why the others are incorrect:

A: Describes physical trunking or logical switch ports, not an SVI.

B: An SVI can provide management access, but that is only one use—not the best description here.

D: SVI use is not related to running out of physical ports.

Quezon City, Philippines

AI Explanation - verified by User5368 on: October 05, 2026
Question 10:
Yes—10.2.1.3 is the broadcast address when using a /30 mask (255.255.255.252).
A /30 creates blocks of four addresses:

10.2.1.0 — network address

10.2.1.1 — usable host

10.2.1.2 — usable host

10.2.1.3 — broadcast address

So it cannot be assigned to a router interface in that subnet. The usable addresses are 10.2.1.1 and 10.2.1.2.
That is why option A is incorrect, while option D is intended to be correct—although D has a mask typo: it should show 255.255.255.252, not 225.255.255.252.
Cape Town, South Africa

AI Explanation - verified by User5938 on: September 11, 2026
resuma
Resposta: Não.
Máquinas virtuais do Azure usam o modelo IaaS, não PaaS.

IaaS: você gerencia a VM e o sistema operacional.

PaaS: o Azure gerencia a infraestrutura; você se concentra no aplicativo.

Logo, a solução proposta não atende ao objetivo.
Cabo Frio, Brazil

AI Explanation - verified by User2188 on: September 10, 2026
Question 492:
Correct answer: C — “Adjacency Segment must be configured manually.”
An Adjacency Segment in Segment Routing represents a specific link or adjacency from one network device to a neighbor. It is identified by an Adjacency Segment ID (Adj-SID).
Why C is wrong:

An Adj-SID does not necessarily need manual configuration.

It can often be dynamically allocated by the router, although manual configuration may also be possible.

The adjacency information is advertised through the IGP, such as IS-IS or OSPF.

The other statements are essentially correct:

It is identified by an Adj-SID.

It represents a particular adjacency of a node.

Its meaning is generally local to the advertising node; unlike a Node-SID, it is not a globally reusable instruction across the network.

Setúbal, Portugal

AI Explanation - verified by User8379 on: September 22, 2026
so the correct answer is ?
The correct three selections are:

Admin access to the deployment pipeline

Contributor access to the Development and Test workspaces

Viewer access to the Production workspace

So, using the option order shown, the answer is B, D, and E.
The displayed key, B and E, is incomplete because the developers also need Viewer access to Production to view production items. They should not have Contributor access there, since that would allow modifications or deployments to Production.
Delhi, India

AI Explanation - verified by User9108 on: September 28, 2026
Question 53:
Correct answers: A and E

A. Remove rows where Sales[Status] is Canceled

The analysis uses only finished sales, so canceled transactions do not contribute to the report. Filtering them out in Power Query reduces the number of rows loaded and processed.

E. Remove Sales[Canceled Date]

This column is relevant only to canceled transactions, which are removed. Since it is not used in the analysis, deleting it reduces the model’s column storage.
Why the others are less suitable:

B: Removing Sales_Date would remove information users need—the date portion.

C: Changing Delivery_Time to Integer could alter its meaning or precision and is not necessarily safe.

D: Splitting the date/time column creates additional columns rather than simply removing unnecessary data.

Hendrik-Ido-Ambacht, The Netherlands

AI Explanation - verified by User8578 on: September 17, 2026
Question 2:
You can assign the Microsoft Entra ID P2 license to Group1 and Group2.

Group1 — security-enabled: Eligible.

Group2 — mail-enabled and security-enabled: Eligible because it is still a security group.

Group3 — Microsoft 365 group: Not eligible for group-based licensing.

Group4 — Microsoft 365 group, not security-enabled: Not eligible.

Therefore, the correct answer is Group1 and Group2 only.
The supplied answer key stating Group1 and Group3 appears to be incorrect.
Bhopal, India

AI Explanation - verified by User4549 on: September 16, 2026
Question 6:
Correct answer: B. SLA (Service-Level Agreement)
An SLA is an agreement that defines the level of service a vendor must provide, including the time frame for responding to support requests. It may also specify:

Maximum response and resolution times

Expected uptime or availability

Performance requirements

Escalation procedures

Consequences for failing to meet requirements

Why the others don’t fit:

SOW: Defines a project’s scope, tasks, deliverables, and schedule.

MOA: Documents specific responsibilities agreed upon by two parties.

MOU: Records a general understanding or intent to cooperate.

For exam questions involving vendor response times or service commitments, choose SLA.
Broomfield, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User5833 on: October 02, 2026
Question 17:
Correct answer: E. only new data added to the Eventhouse
When you enable OneLake availability for a KQL database, Fabric makes newly ingested data available in OneLake. It does not automatically backfill or copy the data that already exists in the Eventhouse.
Therefore:

Existing Eventhouse data: remains available only in the KQL database.

Data ingested after enabling the feature: is copied to OneLake and can be accessed through OneLake file explorer.

New databases: are irrelevant; the setting applies to the selected KQL database.

The exam clue is the timing: enabling OneLake availability affects future ingestion, not historical data.
Madison, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User6020 on: September 23, 2026
Question 133:
Correct answer: A — The initial investment can increase by no more than 7.3%.
The current NPV is $36,500, so the project can absorb an additional cost of $36,500 before its NPV falls to zero.
\[ \text{Sensitivity}=\frac{\text{NPV}}{\text{Initial investment}}\times100 \]
\[ =\frac{36,500}{500,000}\times100=7.3\% \]
Therefore, the initial investment could rise by 7.3%, or $36,500, before the project becomes non-viable.

New investment: $536,500

Resulting NPV: $0

The options referring to the NPV decreasing by 7.3% or 13.7% are incorrect. Since NPV is currently $36,500 above zero, it would need to decrease by 100% of its current amount to make the project non-viable.
Maseru, Lesotho

AI Explanation - verified by User9267 on: September 24, 2026
Question 55:
Correct answer: B — Ramen
Why:

Ramen is a Linux worm associated with Red Hat Linux 6.2 and 7.0 systems.

It spreads by scanning randomly generated IP addresses using tools such as synscan.

It exploits vulnerable network services, including web-related services, and may leave malicious files or altered web content.

The tar.gz file is also a clue because it is a common Linux archive/package format.

Why the others are incorrect:

Code Red: Primarily targeted Microsoft IIS servers running Windows.

LoveLetter: Spread mainly through email attachments.

Nimda: A Windows-based worm that spread through email, web servers, and network shares.

Therefore, the answer key’s B is correct.
Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia

AI Explanation - verified by User3133 on: September 21, 2026
Question 54:
Correct answer: C — Guardrails for Amazon Bedrock
Guardrails for Amazon Bedrock help control both the input prompts and model responses. The company can configure safeguards such as:

Filtering harmful or inappropriate content

Blocking specified topics

Detecting and masking sensitive information

Enforcing content policies suitable for children

Why the others are incorrect:

Amazon Rekognition analyzes images and videos; it does not control text generated by a language model.

Amazon Bedrock playgrounds are for testing models and prompts, not enforcing production safety policies.

Agents for Amazon Bedrock help models complete tasks and use tools; they do not primarily provide content-safety controls.

For exam questions involving safe, age-appropriate, or policy-compliant Bedrock output, look for Guardrails for Amazon Bedrock.
Bangkok, Thailand

AI Explanation - verified by stefan_dragomirescu on: September 09, 2026
Question 152:
The stated answer for DB1 looks incorrect.

DB1 (500 TB): Azure Data Box Heavy

- The database is too large for a practical network transfer. - Data Box Heavy supports offline transfer of very large data volumes—up to approximately 1 PB. - You can copy database backup files to the device, ship it to Azure, and then restore or continue the migration there. - This avoids transmitting the data over the internet and minimizes internet impact. - The explanation’s references to 500 GB and Data Migration Assistant do not match the question’s 500 TB requirement. DMA is intended for assessment/schema/data migration scenarios, not efficient offline transfer of a 500-TB database.

Virtual machines: Azure Migrate

- Azure Migrate replicates on-premises VMs to Azure. - It supports a test migration without affecting production. - During the final migration, the brief cutover minimizes downtime.
Therefore, the likely correct selections are:
| Workload | Service | |---|---| | DB1 | Azure Data Box Heavy | | Virtual machines | Azure Migrate |
Bucharest, Romania

AI Explanation - verified by User5118 on: September 15, 2026
Question 108:
Question 108 tests the dysfunctional effect of assessing a manager using ROI alone.

Existing expected ROI: 15%

New project ROI: 14%

Cost of capital: 12%

The manager will compare the project’s 14% with the division’s current 15% ROI. Because 14% is lower, investing would reduce the division’s overall ROI, so the manager is likely to reject the project.
However, from the company’s perspective, the project should be accepted because:

Project return = 14%

Cost of capital = 12%

It earns 2% more than the cost of capital, so it should increase shareholder value.

Therefore, ROI can encourage dysfunctional decision-making: the manager protects the reported divisional ROI, even though the project is economically beneficial.
The answer key shows A, but the image containing the individual true/false statements is not visible here, so I cannot identify exactly which statement is labelled A. The key principle is: a project should be accepted when its return exceeds the cost of capital, even if it lowers the division’s existing ROI.
Maseru, Lesotho

AI Explanation - verified by User3107 on: September 17, 2026
Question 44:
Correct answer: C — AWS Organizations
AWS Organizations can be used at no additional charge. It lets you centrally manage multiple AWS accounts, organize them into groups, apply service control policies, and consolidate billing.
Why the others are not best:

Amazon SageMaker — charges apply for compute, storage, and other resources used.

AWS Config — generally charges for configuration recording and rule evaluations.

Amazon CloudWatch — has a limited free tier, but many metrics, logs, alarms, and API usage can incur charges.

The key wording is “at no additional cost”, meaning the service itself does not charge a separate fee. Resources or services managed through Organizations may still generate normal AWS charges.
Bengaluru, India

AI Explanation - verified by User2813 on: October 02, 2026
Can you explain the batch image-rendering application part?
A batch image-rendering application processes many images or frames without requiring a person to receive each result immediately.
For example, a company might need to:

Render thousands of animation frames

Generate product images in multiple sizes

Apply filters or transformations to a large image collection

Produce visual effects for a video

These jobs can often be divided into independent tasks and processed by multiple EC2 instances in parallel. If an instance stops, the unfinished tasks can be retried on another instance.
That makes the workload suitable for Spot Instances, provided the application is designed to handle interruptions—usually by saving completed work and tracking unfinished tasks.
The important distinction is that the rendering does not need to run continuously. A brief interruption delays completion, but it does not usually cause a business outage or data loss. This flexibility allows the company to prioritize low cost over uninterrupted availability.
Mount Vernon, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User5938 on: September 26, 2026
Question 29:
Correct answer: $174 million (A).
In consolidation, CD’s assets are brought into the group accounts at their fair value at acquisition, not simply at their carrying amount.
Calculation:

AB’s own PPE: $100m

CD’s PPE in its individual accounts: $50m

Fair value uplift at acquisition: $40m

Remaining useful life: 10 years

Extra depreciation each year: $40m ÷ 10 = $4m

Four years’ extra depreciation to 31 December 20X4: 4 × $4m = $16m

Remaining fair value uplift: $40m - $16m = $24m

Therefore:
$100m + $50m + $24m = $174m
The extra depreciation must be recognised in the consolidated accounts because the uplifted assets have a higher depreciable amount. The individual accounts of CD continue to use its original carrying value.
Maseru, Lesotho

AI Explanation - verified by aarif.hussaini on: September 27, 2026
Question 5:
The five Now Create methodology phases are generally:

Initiate — establish the project, scope, team, and governance.

Plan — develop the detailed plan, schedule, resources, and implementation approach.

Execute — configure, integrate, migrate, test, and prepare the solution.

Deploy — move the solution into production and support go-live.

Close — complete handover, confirm outcomes, and formally close the project.

Each phase has an exit gate to verify that required deliverables and approvals are complete before progressing. Names can vary slightly by ServiceNow release or implementation material, but the exam’s expected count is five phases.
Bhopal, India

AI Explanation - verified by User3485 on: October 05, 2026
Question 86:
Correct answer: OWASP
OWASP (Open Worldwide Application Security Project) publishes resources about common web application vulnerabilities and exploitation methods, especially the OWASP Top 10. It covers issues such as injection, broken access control, authentication failures, and security misconfiguration.
Why the others are less suitable:

STIX: A standardized format for exchanging cyber-threat intelligence.

OVAL: A language and framework for describing and assessing system vulnerabilities and configuration issues.

Threat intelligence feed: Provides current indicators or threat information, but is not specifically a reference for common application exploitation techniques.

CVE: A catalog of publicly disclosed vulnerabilities, identified by unique CVE numbers.

For this question, associate common application attack methods with OWASP, particularly the OWASP Top 10.
Toronto, Canada

AI Explanation - verified by User5153 on: September 23, 2026
Question 1:
The answer key appears to be incorrect for Box 1.
Correct selections should be:

Search & Intelligence in the Microsoft 365 admin center — No

- Search & Intelligence is used to configure and analyze Microsoft Search, including bookmarks, acronyms, Q&As, and search insights. - It is not the location for reviewing administrative actions.

Audit in the Microsoft Defender portal — Yes

- The Defender portal provides access to audit and investigation capabilities for security-related activities across Microsoft 365.

Audit in the Microsoft Purview portal — Yes

- Microsoft Purview Audit records user and administrator activities across Microsoft 365 services. - You can search audit records to determine what actions were performed, by whom, and when.
Therefore, I believe the correct pattern is No, Yes, Yes, not “Yes” for all three. The key concept is that administrative activity is reviewed through the unified audit log, available through Purview Audit and, in relevant scenarios, the Defender portal.
Cairo, Egypt

AI Explanation - verified by User9073 on: September 28, 2026
But I watched a tutorial video by a hashicorp ambassador, he said that the terraform workflow is; write the code, run terraform plan and run terraform apply
You’re right: write code ? terraform plan ? terraform apply is the commonly taught workflow for reviewing changes before deployment.
The issue is that the answer choices are imperfect:

terraform init is normally required first, especially for a new or changed working directory. It installs providers/modules and configures the backend.

terraform plan previews the proposed changes.

terraform apply applies those changes. It also creates a plan internally if you have not supplied a saved plan.

So the more complete workflow is:

text terraform init terraform validate # optional but recommended terraform plan terraform apply

Why option D is not correct: it says to run terraform plan to initialize the working directory. That is incorrect; terraform init performs initialization.
Why option A is the keyed answer: it correctly includes initialization followed by apply, but it omits the recommended explicit planning/review step. Thus, the tutorial’s workflow is better operational guidance, while A is the best available answer among these choices.
Lagos, Nigeria

AI Explanation - verified by User7470 on: September 25, 2026
So the question was more about which is a valid perspective, since that question can describe other perspectives as well
Yes, exactly. The question is testing recognition of a valid AWS CAF perspective, not asking which perspective best matches a detailed scenario.
Governance is one of the six AWS CAF perspectives. The other options are AWS Well-Architected Framework pillars:

Sustainability

Performance efficiency

Reliability

Although “platform” and “operations” are also valid AWS CAF perspectives, they are not answer choices in this question. Their descriptions could certainly be valid in other contexts, but Governance is the only option listed that belongs to the AWS CAF perspectives.
Mount Vernon, United States

AI Explanation - verified by de_jong_patri58 on: September 28, 2026
Question 93:
Question 93 is asking you to create a calculated column in Sales that assigns each transaction a category—such as Small, Medium, or Large—based on Sales[Sales Amount].
The answer key selects:

CALCULATE

AND

FILTER

The logic is essentially:

DAX Transaction Category = CALCULATE( MAX('Transaction Size'[Size]), FILTER( 'Transaction Size', AND( Sales[Sales Amount] >= 'Transaction Size'[Minimum], Sales[Sales Amount] <= 'Transaction Size'[Maximum] ) ) )

FILTER examines the rows in the Transaction Size table.

AND ensures the sales amount falls between the category’s minimum and maximum values.

CALCULATE evaluates the result in the modified filter context and returns the matching category.

For example, if the amount is 750 and the medium range is 500–999, the calculated column returns Medium.
The exact column names may differ because the table images are unavailable, but the important pattern is: filter the range table using two conditions, then return the ma
Hendrik-Ido-Ambacht, The Netherlands

AI Explanation - verified by User4694 on: October 01, 2026
Question 65:
Correct answer: C — Wassenaar Arrangement
The Wassenaar Arrangement is a multinational export-control agreement covering conventional weapons and dual-use technologies. Its controls can include certain cyber capabilities, such as:

Malware or malicious software

Command-and-control tools

Internet surveillance and intrusion software

Why the others are incorrect:

ITAR: A U.S. regulation controlling defense-related articles and services; it is not the international arrangement described.

Palermo Convention: Focuses on transnational organized crime and related protocols, not export controls for cyber weapons.

GDPR: European data-protection and privacy legislation.

The key clue is “international bodies,” “weapons exchanged between signatories,” and cyber-related export controls—these point to the Wassenaar Arrangement.
Accra, Ghana

AI Explanation - verified by User6058 on: September 10, 2026
Question 148:
Correct answer: A — The selling division records a higher price than the cost recorded by the receiving division.
Dual pricing means that the same internal transfer is recorded at two different prices:

The selling division receives a credit based on a favourable transfer price, often market price or full cost plus a profit margin.

The receiving division is charged a lower amount, such as marginal cost or another agreed price.

The difference is accounted for centrally by head office or a corporate adjustment.

This system can motivate both divisions: the selling division is rewarded for supplying goods, while the receiving division is not discouraged by an excessive internal cost.
The other options describe quantity discounts, marginal-cost pricing with a lump-sum payment, or lower internal prices, but none defines the key feature of dual pricing.
Maseru, Lesotho

AI Explanation - verified by User6268 on: September 26, 2026
Question 6:
Correct answer: Governance
The AWS Cloud Adoption Framework (AWS CAF) organizes cloud adoption capabilities into six perspectives:

Business

People

Governance

Platform

Security

Operations

The Governance perspective includes capabilities such as managing cloud initiatives, risks, compliance, and portfolio management. It helps ensure that cloud adoption is controlled and aligned with business objectives.
The other options are AWS Well-Architected Framework pillars, not AWS CAF perspectives:

Sustainability

Performance efficiency

Reliability

So the answer key’s C is correct.
Nowon-Gu, South Korea

AI Explanation - verified by User4406 on: October 07, 2026
Anthropic CCA-F
For Anthropic CCA-F, the intended answer is to use separate PostToolUse hooks, each scoped with a matcher:

API tool matcher: runs a deterministic normalization command after the API tool returns.

Write/Edit matcher: checks whether the target path begins with src/api/ and runs the linter.

Conceptually:

json { "hooks": { "PostToolUse": [ { "matcher": "api_tool", "hooks": [ { "type": "command", "command": "normalize-to-snake-case" } ] }, { "matcher": "Write|Edit", "hooks": [ { "type": "command", "command": "lint-if-under-src-api" } ] } ] } }

The key CCA-F principle is event-driven enforcement: hooks execute based on tool events and do not depend on the model remembering a prompt instruction. The exact matcher and input-variable syntax depends on the Anthropic runtime being tested.
Santa Cruz Do Sul, Brazil

AI Explanation - verified by User2881 on: September 17, 2026
Question 17:
Correct answer: C — Create three sales processes, three record types, and three page layouts.
Each team needs different Opportunity stages and fields, so configure a separate set for each business process:

Sales process: Controls which Opportunity Stage values are available.

Record type: Associates the appropriate sales process with a business scenario and controls available picklist values.

Page layout: Controls which fields are displayed and whether they are required or read-only.

For example:

Energy Market Team 1 ? Record Type 1, Sales Process 1, Page Layout 1

Energy Market Team 2 ? Record Type 2, Sales Process 2, Page Layout 2

Services/Installation Team ? Record Type 3, Sales Process 3, Page Layout 3

A single sales process would not support different stage paths, and one page layout would not provide the teams with different field arrangements.
Porto, Portugal

AI Explanation - verified by User1141 on: September 29, 2026
Question 55:
Correct answer: A. Code repositories
Developers or administrators may accidentally commit cloud credentials, API keys, access tokens, or private keys to source-code repositories. This can happen in public repositories or in private repositories that are later exposed or accessed by an unauthorized user.
Why the others are less appropriate:

Dark web: A place where leaked credentials may be sold or shared, not usually the original source.

Threat feeds: Collections of intelligence about threats, not a typical leakage source.

State actors: A type of attacker, not an accidental corporate disclosure source.

Vulnerability databases: Track known vulnerabilities, rather than leaked credentials.

Organizations reduce this risk with secret scanning, pre-commit checks, repository access controls, and immediate credential rotation if exposure occurs.
Atlanta, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User3452 on: October 05, 2026
Question 4:
Question 4 is truncated in the content provided—it ends at:
> “Project1 ... Tool invo...”
I can’t reliably explain the answer without seeing the actual question and answer choices. Please paste the complete text of Question 4, including all options.
Bengaluru, India

AI Explanation - verified by User1890 on: September 27, 2026
Question 30:
The correct answers are B, D, and E.
When an Excel file moves, you must update the file path stored in the Power Query connection:

B — Data source settings in Power BI Desktop:

Select the Excel source and choose Change Source, then enter the new file path.

D — Formula bar in Power Query Editor:

Edit the Source step, changing the path in the M formula, for example:
m Excel.Workbook(File.Contents("new path"))

E — Advanced Editor in Power Query Editor:

Edit the same source-path information directly in the query’s M code.
The other options are incorrect:

A: Dataset settings in the Power BI service mainly handle credentials and gateway settings, not changing the local file path embedded in the PBIX.

C: Current File data-load settings control refresh/load behavior, not the source location.

Hendrik-Ido-Ambacht, The Netherlands

AI Explanation - verified by User4669 on: October 07, 2026
Question 19:
Question 19: Correct answer — D. Gauge
A Gauge dashboard component is designed to show:

A single summarized value, such as total annual sales

Progress toward a defined target or goal

Whether performance is below, near, or above the target

For example, it could display $8 million in sales against a $10 million goal, making the remaining gap immediately visible.
Why the others are less suitable:

Table: Displays detailed records or summarized rows, but not goal progress visually.

Stacked Bar: Compares multiple categories and their parts.

Donut: Shows how a total is divided among categories, not progress toward a target.

The key phrase is “proximity to the total goal as a single value”, which points directly to a Gauge.
Mumbai, India

AI Explanation - verified by User5505 on: September 20, 2026
Question 5:
Question 5 is about Power Query data profiling in a Fabric dataflow.
To find the minimum and maximum values for every column, you need the column profile, because it provides column statistics such as:

Minimum

Maximum

Average

Count

Null/empty values

Distinct values

The relevant selections are:

Enable column profile

Enable details pane

Show column profile in details pane

The answer key showing only B and E appears incomplete because the question asks for three selections. Show column value distribution is not sufficient—it displays value-frequency patterns, not the min/max statistics.
Also note that Power Query profiling may use only the first 1,000 rows by default. Since this dataflow has 500 rows, the default profiling range covers the complete result set.
Fort Mill, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User1638 on: September 11, 2026
Question 20:
Correct answer: A — Determine an appropriate format for the presentation.
Before presenting requirements, Gary should consider:

The audience and stakeholders

The complexity and type of requirements

The communication method and level of detail needed

Whether to use diagrams, models, documents, demonstrations, or slides

This supports the BABOK task Communicate Business Analysis Information, which requires tailoring the presentation format and content to the stakeholders.
Why the others are less suitable:

B: Authority to host the presentation is not the key preparation activity.

C: Stakeholder sign-off may occur later; presenting requirements does not always require formal approval beforehand.

D: A scribe may be useful in a meeting, but hiring one is not a core preparation requirement for presenting.

Madala, Nigeria

AI Explanation - verified by User3503 on: September 15, 2026
Question 104:
Correct answer: C. WAF (Web Application Firewall)
A WAF is designed to protect web applications and web portals by inspecting HTTP/HTTPS traffic. It can detect and block attacks such as:

SQL injection

Cross-site scripting (XSS)

Malicious or malformed web requests

Some application-layer attacks

Why the others are less suitable:

Layer 4 firewall: Filters based mainly on IP addresses, ports, and transport protocols; it cannot deeply inspect web application content.

NGFW: Provides advanced network filtering and may include application awareness, but a WAF is more specifically designed to protect web applications.

UTM: Combines several security functions in one appliance, but it is not the most targeted solution for a web portal.

Because the requirement specifically involves protecting a customer-facing web service, a WAF is the best choice.
New York, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User6296 on: September 22, 2026
i think you are getting confused with IRM, i have checked MS official sources, A should be the correct answer. can you also check
You’re right to challenge it. My previous answer was incorrect for this question. The expected answer is A — Microsoft Purview portal.
The distinction is:

Microsoft Purview portal: Create and manage sensitivity labels and configure support for sensitivity labels used with Office files in SharePoint and OneDrive.

SharePoint admin center: Primarily manages SharePoint settings. Older guidance and PowerShell procedures used SharePoint tenant configuration, which can make this question confusing.

IRM: Concerns Information Rights Management and is a separate protection mechanism; it should not be used to identify the portal for configuring Microsoft Purview sensitivity labels.

Microsoft’s current administrative experience places sensitivity-label configuration under Microsoft Purview, although some tenant-level functionality may still be exposed through SharePoint Online PowerShell. Therefore, among the four portal choices, A is the best and current answer.
Nagpur, India

AI Explanation - verified by User4042 on: September 30, 2026
Question 8:
Correct answer: D — Format the dataset as a JSONL file with prompt-completion pairs and upload the file.
The answer key’s C appears incorrect. Tracing can help analyze model behavior and evaluate inference calls, but it is not the first required step for configuring a fine-tuning job.
Why D is correct:

Fine-tuning requires a properly formatted training dataset.

For classification or instruction-style fine-tuning, examples are supplied in JSONL format.

Each line represents one training example, typically containing the input prompt and the desired completion or label.

The file must then be uploaded or made available to the Microsoft Foundry fine-tuning workflow.

The other options are not prerequisites:

A: Prompt Flow is useful for prompt experimentation, but it is not required to start fine-tuning.

B: You do not need to deploy the base model to an online endpoint before fine-tuning.

C: Tracing supports observability and evaluation, but it does not prepare the fine-tuning job or dataset.

Lagos, Nigeria

AI Explanation - verified by rjbnyc on: September 15, 2026
Question 240:
Correct answer: D — Deploy one VM scale set configured with ScaleSetVM orchestration mode.
ScaleSetVM is the traditional, uniform orchestration mode. It is designed for a group of identical VM instances managed as a scale set, making it the appropriate choice for quickly deploying five equivalent instances.
Why the others are incorrect:

Deploy five individual VMs: This does not create a VM scale set.

Modify Availability Zones or Size settings: These actions do not create the required scale set and add unnecessary steps.

VM orchestration mode: This is Flexible orchestration, intended for more individually managed VMs and mixed configurations. It is not the best choice for a straightforward group of identical instances.

The key distinction is: ScaleSetVM = uniform, identical instances; VM = flexible, individually managed instances.
Oviedo, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User9211 on: September 25, 2026
Question 21:
Correct answer: C — Internal auditing
An internal audit is the best method for conducting frequent, detailed reviews of systems, processes, and procedures against an organization’s compliance objectives. Internal auditors can examine policies, evidence, control effectiveness, and whether employees follow required procedures.
Why the other options are less suitable:

Third-party attestation: Provides independent confirmation, often for formal compliance reporting, but is not usually performed frequently.

Penetration testing: Attempts to exploit vulnerabilities; it focuses on technical security, not overall compliance procedures.

Vulnerability scans: Identify known technical weaknesses in systems, but do not evaluate whether policies and processes meet compliance requirements.

The key clue is “frequent, detailed reviews” to track “compliance objectives”, which points to internal auditing.
Atlanta, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User4550 on: September 08, 2026
Question 29:
Question 29: Yes — Azure AD Identity Protection is appropriate.
Azure AD Identity Protection (now Microsoft Entra ID Protection) detects risky sign-ins, including sign-ins from:

Unfamiliar locations or IP addresses

Anonymous or malicious IP addresses

Leaked credentials

Unusual sign-in behavior

You can configure a sign-in risk policy to respond automatically when a risky sign-in is detected. One possible control is require password change, typically for high-risk sign-ins.
Therefore, the answer key’s A (Yes) is correct.
Why not Privileged Identity Management (PIM)? Azure AD Privileged Identity Management manages and monitors privileged administrative roles. It does not evaluate users’ sign-in risk or automatically force password changes based on an unfamiliar IP address.
Norwich, United Kingdom

AI Explanation - verified by User3136 on: September 27, 2026
Question 97:
Correct answer: B. netstat
The administrator should first verify that the web server is listening on the expected TCP port and on the correct IP address/interface.

netstat -tuln can show listening TCP ports.

If the web service is not listening, or is bound only to 127.0.0.1, remote browsers cannot connect even though the server responds to ping.

Why the others are less appropriate:

traceroute: Tests the path to the server, but ping already confirms basic reachability.

tcpdump: Useful for detailed packet analysis, but it is more appropriate after checking whether a service is listening.

arp: Helps troubleshoot local IP-to-MAC resolution, not an application-layer web connection.

The question uses netstat; on many modern Linux systems, ss provides similar functionality.
Khulm, Afghanistan

AI Explanation - verified by Tholang2016 on: September 11, 2026
Question 152:
Correct answer: A — Efficient
The three Es in not-for-profit performance measurement are:

Economy: Obtaining inputs at the lowest appropriate cost.

Efficiency: Making the best use of resources, such as staff, money, and equipment.

Effectiveness: Achieving the intended objectives or outcomes.

“Optimum utilization of available resources” describes efficiency, so the organization is efficient.
For example, a charity is efficient if it delivers its services using the minimum resources necessary, but it is effective only if those services achieve the intended social results.
Maseru, Lesotho

AI Explanation - verified by User6133 on: September 20, 2026
Which of the following is a feature of a next-generation SIEM system?
Correct answer: B. Automated response actions
A next-generation SIEM combines log collection and correlation with advanced capabilities such as:

Behavioral and anomaly detection

Threat intelligence integration

User and entity behavior analytics

Automated response actions, often through SOAR integration

Why the others are less appropriate:

Virus signatures: Associated primarily with antivirus or endpoint protection.

Security agent deployment: Usually an endpoint-management or EDR function.

Vulnerability scanning: Typically performed by vulnerability-management tools, though a SIEM may integrate their results.

The key distinction is that a next-generation SIEM can help detect and automatically respond to threats, rather than only recording and displaying events.
Kissimmee, United States

AI Explanation - verified by permits_patties.0z on: September 12, 2026
For this question the answer is wrong, it should be C
If you’re referring to Question 5, you’re right: C is the better answer, and the provided key showing A appears incorrect.

C: Develop the rule in the Rules Editor, define the events, match, and condition sections, then use the test rule feature. This directly validates the YARA-L rule without enabling it in production.

A: UDM Search can help investigate data and refine filters, but it does not fully test YARA-L logic—especially complex event joins, match windows, and conditions.

D is less appropriate because setting a rule live, even without alerting, can still involve production execution and is not the intended controlled testing workflow.
Riyadh, Saudi Arabia

AI Explanation - verified by User7445 on: September 28, 2026
Question 3:
Correct answer: False (B).
A Snowflake database belongs to a specific Snowflake account. The same database object cannot simultaneously exist in multiple accounts.
However, Snowflake supports database replication, which can copy a database to another account. The copy is a separate database in the destination account, not the original database existing in both accounts.
Also, Secure Data Sharing can let other accounts access shared database objects without physically copying the database. This still does not mean the database exists in multiple accounts.
City Of London, United Kingdom

AI Explanation - verified by User3112 on: September 18, 2026
Question 20:
Correct answer: Persistence
The key clue is the use of unauthorized scheduled tasks that execute scripts during off-peak hours. Scheduled tasks are a common method attackers use to maintain access and ensure malicious code runs repeatedly, even after a reboot or when the attacker is not actively connected.
Why the other options are less suitable:

Initial Intrusion: The compromised VPN account and stolen phishing credentials describe how the attacker first gained access, but that happened months earlier.

Persistence: The scheduled tasks and recurring C2 connections show how the attacker maintained and automated continued access.

Search and Exfiltration: This would involve locating and transferring data. The scenario does not primarily describe data discovery or theft.

Cleanup: Cleanup involves removing evidence or covering tracks. Obfuscated scripts may make detection harder, but the main behavior here is maintaining access.

For exam questions, focus on the most prominent activity being described, not necessarily the earliest event in the timeline.
Monastir, Tunisia

AI Explanation - verified by User4615 on: October 01, 2026
Question 29:
Correct answer: A. Hashing
A cryptographic hash produces a fixed-length value based on the software’s contents. The company can calculate and securely store the hash of the approved final version. Later, it recalculates the hash:

Matching hashes: The software is likely unchanged.

Different hashes: The software or its contents have been modified.

Hashing provides integrity verification. It does not prevent tampering, so the original hash must be protected from unauthorized changes. In real-world software distribution, a digital signature is often preferred because it also verifies the publisher’s identity, but that is not one of the available options.

Encryption: Protects confidentiality, not primarily integrity.

Baselines: Document expected configurations and support comparison, but hashing is more directly suited to verifying file integrity.

Tokenization: Replaces sensitive data with tokens and is unrelated to software tampering.

Annandale, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User5264 on: September 30, 2026
Question 13:
The answer key appears incorrect. I believe the best answer is C — malfunction occurring before the end of the device’s service life.
Under GHTF medical-device vigilance principles, a malfunction that occurs during the stated service life can indicate a device deficiency and is generally reportable if it caused, or could cause, death or serious injury.
The other options describe recognized situations that may exempt an event from reporting:

Deficiency found before patient use: usually does not require an adverse-event report because no patient exposure occurred.

Event caused solely by the patient’s condition: may not be reportable if the device did not contribute.

Malfunction protection operated correctly: generally exempt when the device’s safety mechanism worked as intended and prevented harm.

The key distinction is that “before the end of service life” is not an exemption; it makes the malfunction more significant.
Nanjing, China

Adobe AD0-E710: Skills Tested, Job Roles, and Study Tips

The Adobe Commerce Front-End Developer Expert certification is designed for professionals who specialize in building and customizing the user interface of Adobe Commerce stores. This certification validates a developer's ability to work with the platform's theming system, layout XML, and front-end technologies like Knockout.js and RequireJS. Employers in the e-commerce sector prioritize candidates with this Adobe certification because it confirms a high level of proficiency in creating responsive, performant, and maintainable storefronts. Professionals who hold this credential demonstrate that they can navigate the complexities of the Adobe Commerce architecture to deliver high-quality user experiences. By passing this certification exam, developers signal to potential employers that they possess the technical depth required to manage large-scale e-commerce projects effectively.

The role of a front-end developer in the Adobe Commerce ecosystem involves much more than basic HTML and CSS skills. It requires a deep understanding of how the platform handles template files, block structures, and the overall rendering process. Developers must be able to troubleshoot issues that arise when integrating third-party extensions or custom modules into the storefront. This certification exam ensures that the candidate has the necessary skills to optimize page load times and ensure cross-browser compatibility. Consequently, companies that rely on Adobe Commerce for their online business operations actively seek out certified experts to lead their development teams.

What the AD0-E710 Exam Covers

The exam focuses on several core domains that are essential for any front-end developer working with Adobe Commerce. Candidates are tested on their knowledge of the theming system, which includes creating and extending themes, managing layout XML files, and working with template files. Another major area involves the use of UI components, which are critical for building dynamic and interactive elements on the storefront. Additionally, the exam covers the integration of JavaScript libraries, such as Knockout.js and RequireJS, which are fundamental to the platform's front-end architecture. Our practice questions are designed to mirror these specific domains, ensuring that you are well-prepared for the technical challenges you will face during the actual test.

The most technically demanding aspect of the exam often involves the complex interaction between UI components and the underlying Knockout.js framework. Candidates must demonstrate a clear understanding of how data is bound, how templates are rendered, and how to effectively debug JavaScript issues within the Adobe Commerce environment. This requires more than just surface-level knowledge, as it demands an ability to trace data flow and understand the lifecycle of components. Mastering these concepts is essential for passing, and our practice questions provide the necessary scenarios to test your application of these advanced techniques.

Are These Real AD0-E710 Exam Questions?

Our practice questions are sourced and verified by the community, consisting of IT professionals and recent test-takers who have sat the actual exam. This community-verified approach ensures that our content remains relevant and accurate, reflecting the current state of the Adobe certification. While we do not provide leaked or confidential material, our questions reflect what appears on the real exam because they are sourced from the community. If you have been searching for AD0-E710 exam dumps or braindump files, our community-verified practice questions offer something more valuable: each question is verified and explained by IT professionals who recently passed the exam.

Community verification works through a collaborative process where users discuss answer choices, flag potentially incorrect information, and share context from their recent exam experience. This feedback loop allows us to refine our questions and explanations, ensuring they are both reliable and educational. By engaging with these discussions, you gain insights into the reasoning behind each answer, which is far more effective than simply memorizing a list of questions. This collaborative effort is what makes our platform a trusted resource for your exam preparation.

How to Prepare for the AD0-E710 Exam

Effective exam preparation requires a combination of hands-on experience and a thorough understanding of the official Adobe documentation. You should spend time working in a sandbox environment, building themes, and experimenting with layout XML to see how changes affect the storefront. Do not rely solely on memorization, as the exam is designed to test your ability to apply concepts to real-world scenarios. Every practice question includes a free AI Tutor explanation that breaks down the reasoning behind the correct answer, so you understand the concept, not just the answer. This approach helps you build a solid foundation of knowledge that will serve you well beyond the exam.

A common mistake candidates make is underestimating the importance of scenario-based questions, which require applied knowledge rather than rote memorization. To avoid this, focus on understanding the "why" behind each technical decision, such as why a specific UI component is chosen or how a particular layout change impacts performance. Time management is another critical factor, so practice answering questions under timed conditions to get comfortable with the pace of the actual certification exam. By consistently reviewing your mistakes and using the AI Tutor to clarify complex topics, you can significantly improve your chances of success.

What to Expect on Exam Day

The AD0-E710 exam is typically administered in a proctored environment, either at a testing center or through an online proctoring service. You can expect a variety of question types, including multiple-choice and scenario-based questions that require you to apply your knowledge to specific development challenges. The exam is designed to test your technical proficiency, so be prepared for questions that delve into the details of Adobe Commerce architecture. While the specific number of questions and the passing score can change, the format remains consistent with other Adobe certification exams. Ensure you are familiar with the testing platform and the rules of the exam before your scheduled date.

Who Should Use These AD0-E710 Practice Questions

These practice questions are intended for front-end developers who have significant experience with Adobe Commerce and are looking to validate their skills through this certification exam. Typically, candidates should have at least one to two years of hands-on experience with the platform, including working with themes, layouts, and JavaScript integration. Whether you are looking to advance your career, gain recognition for your expertise, or simply improve your technical skills, this certification is a valuable asset. Our platform provides the necessary tools for comprehensive exam preparation, helping you achieve your professional goals.

To get the most out of these practice questions, do not just read the answer and move on. Engage with the AI Tutor explanation, read the community discussions to understand different perspectives, and flag questions you got wrong so you can revisit them later. This active learning process is the most effective way to solidify your understanding and build confidence for the exam. Browse the questions above and use the community discussions and AI Tutor to build real exam confidence.

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Adobe AD0-E710 Exam Prep Adobe Commerce Front-End Developer Expert () (Page 2 )

QUESTION: 1

QUESTION: 2

QUESTION: 3

QUESTION: 4

QUESTION: 5

Adobe AD0-E710: Skills Tested, Job Roles, and Study Tips

What the AD0-E710 Exam Covers

Are These Real AD0-E710 Exam Questions?

How to Prepare for the AD0-E710 Exam

What to Expect on Exam Day

Who Should Use These AD0-E710 Practice Questions

Adobe AD0-E710 Exam Prep
Adobe Commerce Front-End Developer Expert () (Page 2 )