Aruba ACMP_6.4 Exam Prep
Aruba Certified Mobility Professional 6.4 (Page 11 )

• Matching hashes: The software likely has not changed.
• Different hashes: The software was modified or corrupted.

• Encryption: Protects confidentiality by making data unreadable; it does not primarily detect changes.
• Baselines: Define an approved system or configuration state, but they are not the specific integrity mechanism here.
• Tokenization: Replaces sensitive data with substitute values.

Statement 1 — Correct

Statement 2 — Correct

• Constrained VMs: VMs whose workloads are experiencing resource pressure, such as insufficient CPU or memory. They may need additional resources or optimization.
• Overprovisioned VMs: VMs allocated more CPU, memory, or storage than their workloads require. Their resources may be reclaimed or reduced.

• Underprovisioned VMs: This is not the predefined view identified for this report question.
• Zombie VMs: These are typically inactive or unused VMs and are useful for cleanup, but they are not the two views specifically intended here to identify inefficient resource allocation.

• Matching hashes: The software is likely unchanged.
• Different hashes: The software or its contents have been modified.

• Encryption: Protects confidentiality, not primarily integrity.
• Baselines: Document expected configurations and support comparison, but hashing is more directly suited to verifying file integrity.
• Tokenization: Replaces sensitive data with tokens and is unrelated to software tampering.

• The audience and stakeholders
• The complexity and type of requirements
• The communication method and level of detail needed
• Whether to use diagrams, models, documents, demonstrations, or slides

• B: Authority to host the presentation is not the key preparation activity.
• C: Stakeholder sign-off may occur later; presenting requirements does not always require formal approval beforehand.
• D: A scribe may be useful in a meeting, but hiring one is not a core preparation requirement for presenting.

• Data Cloud combines data from multiple systems.
• It resolves and organizes that data into a unified customer view.
• That unified view enables downstream actions such as personalized campaigns, segmentation, analytics, and activation.

• A = core platform value
• D = a resulting business use case or benefit

• A class/teacher fact should contain one row per Class ID. It can support the count of classes and contain attributes such as Teacher First Name and Period Number.
• An attendance fact should contain one row per attendance event, such as Class ID + student + date. It supports attendance counts by day and monthly averages.

• Teacher First Name ? Teacher fact
• Period Number ? Attendance fact

• A. PsFile — Correct: Displays files opened remotely on a system. This reveals shared resources and user activity.
• B. UserInfo — Correct: Gathers information about user accounts, supporting account and privilege enumeration.
• C. PsPasswd — Answer key lists it: This is questionable. PsPasswd is primarily used to change passwords remotely, not enumerate information. The key may classify it broadly as a Windows account-management tool, but it is not a strong enumeration example.
• D. WinSSLMiM — Incorrect: Used for SSL man-in-the-middle activity, not enumeration.

• 24 cores: Available in the Business Critical provisioned-compute configurations.
• Approximately 124 GB memory: Matches the memory capacity of the relevant Business Critical hardware configuration.
• More than 50,000 IOPS: Business Critical uses local SSD storage and provides the high I/O performance required here.
• 500 GB storage: Well within the tier’s supported capacity.

• Premium: The DTU-based Premium tier does not provide the required combination of compute, memory, and I/O characteristics.
• Hyperscale: Hyperscale is primarily intended for very large databases and independent storage scaling. It is not the best match for these specific high-memory and high-IOPS requirements.

Correct reasoning

• Create storage5 as a General-purpose v2 (StorageV2) account.
• Configure Blob object replication from storage5 to an existing compatible storage account.
• The destination must support object replication—typically another StorageV2 or premium block blob account.
• Blob versioning must be enabled on both accounts.
• Blob change feed must be enabled on the source account.
• The accounts must meet Azure’s object-replication requirements, including being in supported regions and having compatible configuration.

• B — AWS DataSync: Transfers data between storage systems. It is not a marketplace or integration service for third-party datasets.
• C — Kinesis Data Streams and CodeCommit: CodeCommit stores source code, not third-party analytical datasets. Kinesis is for streaming data, not retrieving datasets from repositories.
• D — Kinesis Data Streams and ECR: Amazon ECR stores container images, not third-party datasets.

• Espionage: Stealing confidential information, often for a competitor or foreign entity.
• Data exfiltration: Unauthorized removal or transfer of data.
• Nation-state attack: A cyberattack sponsored or conducted by a government.
• Shadow IT: Unapproved technology or services used outside IT oversight.

• B: Developer Edition has limited user, storage, and data-volume capacity, making realistic community testing difficult.
• C: A Developer Edition org cannot contain sandboxes, so it cannot provide separate environments for development, integration, and UAT.
• E: A standalone Developer Edition org is not part of the production org’s deployment path, so change sets cannot be used to deploy from it directly to that production org. The team would need Metadata API, Salesforce CLI, or another deployment method.

• C. Case after-insert trigger that publishes a Platform Event

• D. Custom Apex controller that publishes a Platform Event

• A. Trigger with a callout: Salesforce triggers should not make direct synchronous callouts, and this tightly couples transaction processing to the external system.
• B. Workflow Rule with Outbound Message: This can react to record changes, but it cannot reliably capture a user clicking a menu item. It also does not provide the same flexible event-driven model as Platform Events.

Manager role

DAX 
Country[Manager] = USERPRINCIPALNAME()

• Sales
• Human Resources

CFO role

• See sales for all countries
• See no Human Resources data

• Do not restrict the Country table or Sales table.
• Apply a filter to Human Resources that always returns false, such as:

DAX 
FALSE()

apex 
for (Account updatedAccount : Trigger.new) { 
    AccountTriggerHelper.notinyxternalSystem(updatedAccount.Id); 
}

• Too many callouts: The callout occurs asynchronously in the future method, and each future transaction can perform its permitted callouts.
• Too many SOQL queries: The SOQL query is inside the future execution, not repeatedly in the trigger transaction.
• Callout from triggers not supported: Direct callouts from triggers are prohibited, but the trigger delegates the callout to asynchronous Apex, which is the correct pattern.

• A: It allows for branching and merging...

• C: It allows multiple engineers to work against the same code and configuration files and manage differences and conflicts.

• B: Build automation and infrastructure provisioning are handled by CI/CD and automation tools, not by version control alone.
• D: User Stories and backlogs are managed by project-management tools.
• E: Version control stores and tracks code, but it does not itself ensure that developers write effective unit tests.

• How quickly the vendor must respond to incidents or requests
• Availability or uptime requirements
• Resolution time targets
• Performance expectations and penalties for failing to meet them

• SOW (Statement of Work): Describes the work, deliverables, scope, and schedule.
• MOA (Memorandum of Agreement): Documents an agreement in which parties commit to specific responsibilities.
• MOU (Memorandum of Understanding): Records a general intention to cooperate; it may not be legally binding.

• A. IDS attack signatures: Detects suspicious network activity, but is not primarily designed to scan uploaded files for malware.
• C. Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers and improves availability; it does not inspect files for threats.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications from attacks such as SQL injection and command injection, but its primary role is not malware scanning of uploaded documents.

• Existing expected ROI: 15%
• New project ROI: 14%
• Cost of capital: 12%

• Project return = 14%
• Cost of capital = 12%
• It earns 2% more than the cost of capital, so it should increase shareholder value.

• Code signing: Verifies the software’s authenticity and integrity; it does not hide the source code or prevent reverse engineering.
• Tokenization: Replaces sensitive data with tokens, mainly for protecting data such as payment information—not software logic.
• Blockchain: Provides a tamper-resistant record of transactions or data; it does not protect compiled code from analysis.

• A — Securing information assets: This is the responsibility of management and operational/security teams.
• B — Validating protection: Correct. The auditor checks whether controls—such as access restrictions, encryption, retention, and handling procedures—match the asset’s classification.
• C — Ensuring alignment with regulations: Management and legal/compliance functions typically establish classification requirements; the auditor may assess compliance but does not primarily define alignment.
• D — Defining classification levels: This is a management responsibility based on business needs, risk, and regulatory obligations.

• Prevention costs: Avoiding defects, such as staff training and improved product design. The company has invested in these.
• Appraisal costs: Detecting defects before products reach customers, such as inspection and testing. The planned batch sampling has not been implemented.
• Internal failure costs: Correcting defects found before delivery.
• External failure costs: Dealing with defects after delivery, such as refunds, replacements, complaints and lost sales.

• Namespace: The namespace associated with the code where the checkpoint was set.
• Time: When the checkpoint was captured or executed.

• Exception: Exceptions are viewed through debug logs or execution results, not as the primary Checkpoints tab information.
• Debug Statement: System.debug() output belongs in the Logs tab. A checkpoint captures program state, such as variables and their values, at a specific point in execution.

• Response and resolution time frames
• Availability or uptime requirements
• Performance targets
• Support obligations
• Penalties for failing to meet requirements

• SOW (Statement of Work): Defines the project’s scope, tasks, and deliverables.
• MOA (Memorandum of Agreement): Describes cooperation and responsibilities between parties.
• MOU (Memorandum of Understanding): Records a general mutual understanding, usually without detailed enforceable service targets.

• Box 1: No — The rule requires user.department to equal Engineering. Engineer does not match, so User1 is not in AU1. Admin1 cannot reset User1’s password.
• Box 2: No — Admin1’s role is scoped to AU1 and cannot manage users outside that AU.
• Box 3: Yes — Admin2 is a Global Administrator and can reset User3’s password.

• Suporta domínios personalizados.
• Oferece 50 GB de armazenamento — suficiente para os 10 GB de cada aplicação.
• Usa instâncias de computação dedicadas.
• Inclui balanceamento de carga entre instâncias.
• É o plano mais econômico entre as opções que atendem a todos esses requisitos.

• terraform apply
• terraform destroy

• A: CEO-sponsored formal policy — demonstrates executive support, but sponsorship at one point in time may not sustain commitment.
• B: Security awareness training — primarily improves employee behavior, not senior management commitment.
• C: Periodic alignment reviews — ongoing reviews show that security remains relevant, supports business priorities, and uses resources appropriately.
• D: Senior management signoff on the strategy — useful for governance and accountability, but signoff is generally a one-time event.

• A. Adjust resolution: Incorrect because an incompatible resolution usually causes no display, distortion, or an unsupported-mode message—not intermittent flickering.
• B. Swap the HDMI cable: Correct. Replacing the common, easily tested component is the appropriate troubleshooting step.
• C. Replace the projector: Incorrect because the issue also occurs with a monitor.
• D. Configure refresh rate: A mismatched refresh rate can cause visual problems, but the repeated flicker across displays points more strongly to the cable.

• An Adj-SID does not necessarily need manual configuration.
• It can often be dynamically allocated by the router, although manual configuration may also be possible.
• The adjacency information is advertised through the IGP, such as IS-IS or OSPF.

• It is identified by an Adj-SID.
• It represents a particular adjacency of a node.
• Its meaning is generally local to the advertising node; unlike a Node-SID, it is not a globally reusable instruction across the network.

• A — VARIANT "null" values are not the same as SQL NULL values: True

• B — Frequent, single-row DMLs: False

• C — Validate data before loading into the target table: True

• D — Use staging tables to manage MERGE statements: True

• Operating profit is affected because transfer price determines internal sales revenue.
• Return on investment (ROI) is affected because ROI depends partly on operating profit.
• Sales revenue is affected because the division records revenue from transferring its output.
• Cost of components purchased is not affected by the transfer price. These are input costs paid to external suppliers and are based on the supplier’s price.

• Accept: Acknowledging the risk without taking additional action.
• Transfer: Moving the risk’s financial impact to a third party, such as an insurer.
• Mitigate: Reducing the likelihood or impact through controls, such as patching or employee training.
• Avoid: Eliminating the activity that creates the risk.

• Identifies which user or department owns the device
• Supports inventory and compliance requirements
• Enables tracking of lost, stolen, retired, or unauthorized devices
• Helps enforce security controls such as mobile-device management and secure configuration

• CBWFQ (Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing): Creates traffic classes and assigns each class a guaranteed bandwidth or queueing treatment.
• PQ (Priority Queuing): Uses multiple queues with strict priority. Higher-priority queues are serviced before lower-priority queues, making it useful for delay-sensitive traffic—but it can starve lower-priority traffic.

• FRTS: Traffic shaping for Frame Relay; it controls the transmission rate rather than selecting packets during congestion.
• CAR: Polices traffic by rate, typically dropping or remarking packets that exceed a limit.
• PBR: Policy-Based Routing; it selects forwarding paths and is not a QoS queueing mechanism.

• A password cracker would normally be identified by behavior such as loading password hashes or attempting dictionary/brute-force attacks.
• The question describes a routine audit, not password recovery.
• Simply encountering a protected file during an audit is characteristic of a misconfigured or insufficiently privileged FIM.

• B — Incorporate contextual output encoding/escaping: Encode untrusted data based on its context—HTML, attribute, JavaScript, or URL—so the browser treats it as data rather than executable code.
• D — Run untrusted HTML input through an HTML sanitization engine: Sanitization removes or neutralizes dangerous elements and attributes, such as script-related content, while preserving safe HTML where needed.

• A: Enabling client-side scripts does not prevent XSS. Script restrictions may reduce risk in some environments, but “enable” is not a general XSS control.
• C: Cookie inspection is unrelated to preventing injected scripts.
• E: The SameSite cookie attribute primarily helps mitigate CSRF, not XSS. It should not generally be described as an XSS prevention measure.

• Amazon EC2 instances — ???????? ?? ?? ??????? CPU, memory ??? instance size ???????? ???????
• AWS Lambda functions — memory configuration ?????????? ???????
• Amazon EBS volumes — volume type ?? size optimize ???? ???????
• ??????? ECS workloads — resource configuration ? cost optimization-?? ???????

• Memory ? compute usage ?????????? ???? custom code ????? ???? development ? maintenance ??????
• Cost allocation tags ???? ????? ??? ?????? ???? ??????? ???; inefficient resource ??????? ?? recommendation ???? ???
• CloudTrail resource ???? ?? API activity ??????, resource utilization ????

• Customers may boycott V’s products.
• Supermarket customers may stop buying from V.
• Investors may view V as having higher legal, ethical and reputational risk.
• V could face fines, lawsuits, contract losses and higher costs.
• Expected future profits may fall.

• GPS coordinates
• Date and time the image was taken
• Camera or device model
• Exposure settings

• Log data: Records events or activities, such as system or application activity.
• Encrypted data: Information intentionally encoded to prevent unauthorized access.
• Sensitive data: A broad classification for information requiring protection; geolocation may be sensitive, but the technical type stored in the image is metadata.

• A. IDS attack signatures: An IDS primarily detects suspicious network activity; it is not the best control for scanning uploaded documents for malware.
• C. Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers and improves availability, but does not inspect files for malware.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications against attacks such as SQL injection and command injection. It may help secure the upload function, but malware scanning is the key requirement here.

• C — Before update
• D — Before insert

apex 
trigger AccountTrigger on Account (before insert, before update) { 
    for (Account acct : Trigger.new) { 
        acct.Description = 'Updated automatically'; 
    } 
}

• In after insert and after update, Trigger.new records are read-only.
• Use after triggers when you need the record’s final database Id or want to create/update related records.
• Attempting to change a field directly in an after trigger causes a read-only error.

• Data owners: Decide who should have access and approve the access rules.
• Business process owners: May help define business requirements, but normally do not enforce technical permissions.
• Security steering committee: Provides governance and direction; it does not manage individual access rights.
• Security administrators: Apply and enforce the approved access controls.

• A: Concerns task scheduling and avoiding missed runs, not directly sizing the warehouse.
• B: The amount of data in a stream alone does not reliably determine compute needs; the SQL processing is what matters.
• D: A multi-cluster warehouse addresses concurrency, not the compute size needed for one task execution.

• Sales process: Controls which Opportunity Stage values are available.
• Record type: Associates the appropriate sales process with a business scenario and controls available picklist values.
• Page layout: Controls which fields are displayed and whether they are required or read-only.

• Energy Market Team 1 ? Record Type 1, Sales Process 1, Page Layout 1
• Energy Market Team 2 ? Record Type 2, Sales Process 2, Page Layout 2
• Services/Installation Team ? Record Type 3, Sales Process 3, Page Layout 3

• Azure Cosmos DB is a globally distributed NoSQL database service. It stores and retrieves application data, but it does not provide the complete environment for building, testing, and deploying predictive analytics models.
• Azure Machine Learning is the appropriate service for this requirement. It supports creating experiments, training and testing models, and deploying them for predictions.
• Azure Machine Learning Studio provides the browser-based interface for these tasks.

• Labels control access and protection, not blanket exclusion.
• If the user has permission to open a labeled file—especially if the label allows authenticated users to view it—Copilot can use that file in a summary.
• If the label applies encryption and the user lacks the required usage rights, Copilot should not use the file or reveal its contents.
• Copilot honors the user’s existing permissions, so it should not expose labeled content to an unauthorized user.