ASIS ASIS-CPP Exam Actual Questions
ASIS Certified Protection Professional (Page 81 )

• Amazon S3 — Object storage, not a database.
• Amazon DynamoDB — Fully managed NoSQL key-value and document database.
• Amazon Redshift — Managed data warehouse designed for analytics, not primarily transactional MySQL workloads.

1. Create a new AMI or copy the existing AMI while specifying EBS encryption and an appropriate AWS KMS key.
2. This creates an encrypted AMI backed by encrypted EBS snapshots.
3. Copy the encrypted AMI to the destination Region, using a KMS key available there.
4. Launch the application stack from the encrypted AMI.

• B: AWS KMS does not encrypt an existing unencrypted AMI in place. You must create an encrypted copy.
• C: AWS Certificate Manager manages TLS certificates, not EBS or AMI encryption.
• D: Enabling encryption by default affects newly created EBS volumes and snapshots; it does not encrypt an existing unencrypted AMI during copying.

• Geo-redundant storage (GRS) replicates data to a secondary Azure region, but the secondary copy is normally unavailable for read access.
• RA-GRS provides geo-replication and read-only access to the secondary region, satisfying all requirements.
• Zone-redundant storage (ZRS) replicates data across availability zones within the same Azure region, not separate geographic regions.
• Locally redundant storage (LRS) keeps copies within a single datacenter or region and does not provide geographic resiliency.

• A — IDS attack signatures: An IDS generally detects suspicious network activity but does not necessarily scan uploaded PDF files or prevent them from being accepted.
• C — Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers; it does not inspect files for malware.
• D — WAF command-injection blocking: A WAF can help block web attacks such as command injection, SQL injection, and cross-site scripting, but this option does not specifically address malicious PDF uploads.

• Answer: C – netstat -an

• netstat -an lists all active connections and listening ports with numeric addresses, without resolving names. This lets you spot DoS patterns such as a flood of connections to a specific port or many connections from a single or few IPs.
• The other options don’t help as directly:

• Windows: netstat -an and look for numerous ESTABLISHED connections to a service or many SYNs to a port.
• Filter by port, e.g., netstat -an | findstr :80, or on Linux: ss -tunap | grep ':80'.

• Netstat provides a snapshot. DoS detection often benefits from continuous monitoring, flow data, and IDS/IPS logs.

• ProductSearchModel.getProductSearchHits() — option C
• ProductSearchHit.getRepresentedProducts() — option B

• ProductMgr.queryAllSiteProducts() (A) queries every product in the site, which is heavy and not scalable for large catalogs.
• Category.getProducts() (D) retrieves all products in a category; this can be slow for large categories.
• Using the search model and hits (B and C) leverages the search index, supports paging, and avoids scanning the entire catalog, making it more scalable.

• Coordinate and manage the assessment team
• Assign assessment activities
• Direct interviews, examinations, and tests
• Ensure the assessment follows the CAP

• Answer key: Lead Assessor — likely wrong
• CAP-based answer: C3PAO

• A separate scope using a /32 subnet: A /32 identifies one host, but it is not a practical DHCP scope for this purpose.
• A static IP within the DHCP range: This can cause an IP address conflict if DHCP assigns that address to another device.
• SLAAC: Used for automatic IPv6 address configuration, not for assigning a predictable IPv4 address through DHCP.

• Help the team identify the causes of delays.
• Encourage continuous improvement through retrospectives.
• Support the team in changing its process, tools, or collaboration methods.
• Help remove impediments that the team cannot resolve independently.

• A: An impediment log may help, but simply maintaining it does not ensure the impediments are resolved.
• B: Directing the team to solutions conflicts with agile self-management.
• C: Adding impediments to the product backlog could delay their resolution and treats them like product features.

• Developed and maintained independently
• Deployed without changing the entire application
• Scaled separately based on demand
• More resilient when another service has problems

• A: Functional testing is useful, but it is not the main practice described.
• B: Automation helps deployment, but the scenario focuses on architectural decomposition.
• C: Multiple locations improve availability, not application modularity.

• Correct answer: A: The ITIL service value system (SVS).

• The SVS explains how all components (governance, the service value chain, practices, guiding principles, information and technology, partners and resources, and continual improvement) work together to enable value creation from demand to outcomes.

• B: The ITIL guiding principles describe aspirational guidance for decision-making, not how all components/activities interact.
• C: The four dimensions of service management explain areas to consider (organizations/people, information/technology, partners/suppliers, value streams/processes) but don’t describe the integrated system itself.
• D: A service relationship defines the relationship between provider and consumer, not the overall system of components and activities creating value.

• Problème: le système d’alertes signale des fluctuations tout en manquant les activités qui restent anormalement constantes sur une période longue. Il faut donc un scénario qui capte les anomalies qui se maintiennent dans le temps plutôt que les pics ponctuels.
• Peer: permet de comparer un client à ses pairs; utile pour repérer des écarts relatifs, mais ne cible pas nécessairement les motifs d’anomalie persistante sur plusieurs périodes.
• Revenus mapping: relie les transactions à des sources ou flux de revenus; utile pour l’analyse des fonds, mais pas directement pour détecter une anomalie longue durée.
• Below-the-line: conçu pour détecter des activités qui passent en dessous des seuils habituels ou qui demeurent anormales sur une longue période, comblant ainsi la faiblesse des alertes à long terme.

• Mapping:

• Why:

• Quick note: If you were to host a website on a VM, it would be IaaS; if you used a platform service instead of a VM, it would be PaaS. CaaS (containers) isn’t shown here.

• Create Power Query parameters for the Azure SQL server/database—or at least the database name.
• Use the parameter in the PBIX connection.
• Publish the same PBIX separately to the relevant development, test, and production workspaces.
• Set each dataset’s parameter value in the Power BI service so it points to the corresponding Azure SQL database.

• Development dataset ? DevelopmentDB
• Test dataset ? TestDB
• Production dataset ? ProductionDB

• The same PBIX is used for every lifecycle stage.
• Each stage consumes data from its matching database.
• Deployment pipelines are not required.
• Azure SQL is a cloud source, so gateway administration is generally avoided.
• Only the parameter value differs between published datasets, reducing maintenance.

• Key concept: ALE = SLE × ARO

• SLE = $15,000
• Occurrences: 2 in 3 years ? ARO = 2/3 per year ˜ 0.6667

• ALE = $15,000 × 0.6667 ˜ $10,000 per year

• ALE is the expected annual loss, so it averages the losses over each year.
• This helps prioritize risk treatments by comparing ALE to the cost of controls.

• Basic: Self-help only; no technical support or design assessment.
• Standard: Technical support, but not the full proactive architectural guidance required here.
• Professional Direct: Provides proactive guidance and architecture-related assistance.
• Premier: Also supports this, but is a more expensive, enterprise-level option.

• A. Implement retries with exponential backoff

• C. Reduce the frequency and/or size of requests

• B. Use PutRecord instead of PutRecords — PutRecord sends one record per call and does not remove the underlying throughput limitation. It may increase request overhead.
• D. Use Amazon SNS instead — SNS is not a direct fix for Kinesis shard throttling and changes the required streaming architecture.
• E. Reduce KCL consumers — KCL consumers read from Kinesis; they do not solve producer-side PutRecords throttling.

• administrators — Full access to switch configuration and REST API functions; excessive for this requirement.
• sysadmin — Intended for highly privileged system administration, not basic monitoring.
• helpdesk — More limited and focused on troubleshooting/support functions; it does not match the stated default role and level-1 requirement as directly.

• Correct answer: D — AWS Migration Hub

• AWS Migration Hub provides a single location to track the progress of application migrations. It offers a centralized dashboard to view migration status across multiple tools and projects.

• AWS Application Discovery Service helps inventory and map on-prem applications and their dependencies, not a single progress tracker.
• AWS Application Migration Service (formerly SMS) performs the actual lift-and-shift migrations, but isn’t the centralized tracker itself.
• AWS Service Catalog manages catalogs of IT services for self-service deployment, not migration progress.

• Answer: D

• The strongest security comes from enforcing access at the storage layer. An IAM policy scoped to the Cognito identity prefix restricts each user to their own S3 prefix (folder), so users can only access their own files regardless of client or server code.
• This per-user isolation reduces risk of cross-user data access and is more robust than UI validation or Lambda/API validation alone.
• Implementation note: attach a policy to the Cognito identity role that allows actions on arn:aws:s3:::your-bucket/${cognito-identity.amazonaws.com:sub}/* (per-user prefix). Ensure TLS in transit and enable at-rest encryption (SSE-S3 or SSE-KMS). Use multipart upload for large files up to 300 MB.

• Why: The data is unlabeled, so you can’t train a model with known input-output pairs. Unsupervised learning discovers structure in the data by grouping similar customers into clusters or tiers without labels.
• What it does: Clustering and segmentation (e.g., k-means, hierarchical clustering, DBSCAN, Gaussian mixtures) to form meaningful groups.
• Why the other options aren’t as suitable:

• Answer: C — Spot Instances

• Why: The workload is a test environment that can be interrupted and does not need to run continuously. Spot Instances let you bid on unused EC2 capacity at a deep discount, making them the most cost-effective option for interruptible workloads.

• Why not the others:

• Quick tips:

• The AWS Support Concierge is a specialized team within Enterprise Support whose primary role is handling billing and account questions and helping with account setup and getting started.
• They are not the source for architecture guidance or development assistance; those services are provided by Technical Account Managers (TAMs) or Solutions Architects as part of Enterprise Support.
• For technical support cases, customers typically interact with AWS Support engineers or the TAMs, not the Concierge. The Concierge may route or coordinate related requests, but they don’t provide the technical resolution.

• What Concierge does: billing and account inquiries, onboarding help, coordination with AWS support.
• What Concierge does not do: provide architecture/design guidance or in-depth technical support case resolutions.

• Answer: No.

• Why:

• If you need such an assessment while controlling costs, you’d generally pursue a paid MCS engagement or another option outside of the basic Premier entitlement.

• Goal: serving a static website globally with minimal latency.
• Why C works: CloudFront is a Content Delivery Network (CDN) that caches content at many edge locations around the world. When users request the site, CloudFront serves cached copies from the nearest edge location, greatly reducing latency. It also reduces load on your EC2 origin by handling many requests at the edge.
• Why the other options aren’t as good:

• A recipient who already has a Microsoft account or an organizational account can authenticate by signing in.
• A recipient without a usable Microsoft identity may receive a one-time passcode by email.
• The passcode is sent to the same email address that was invited and is used to verify ownership of that address.

• Security Development Operations (SDO): a security-focused take on DevOps, integrating security into the development pipeline.
• Service Data Object (SDO): a data representation used in some middleware or enterprise apps.
• Software-Defined Overlay (SDO): a networking overlay concept.
• Secure Data Object: a generic data-security term.

• Answer: A. Use Amazon SageMaker Serverless Inference to deploy the model.

• Why: SageMaker Serverless Inference hosts the model and serves real-time predictions without you provisioning or managing servers. It scales automatically and handles deployment details.

• Why the others aren’t suitable:

• Quick example flow: web app ? SageMaker Serverless Inference endpoint ? model ? response.

• In the AWS shared responsibility model, AWS manages the security of the “infrastructure,” including the physical hardware and underlying virtualization.
• The customer is responsible for everything else in the cloud stack: the guest OS on EC2, the NoSQL database software running on it, data, patching the OS, and configuring access controls like security groups.
• So, for a self-managed NoSQL database on EC2, AWS would handle the physical hardware, while you would patch the guest OS and manage DB availability, backups, and security.

• Context: You’ve enabled auditing in Dataverse and need to trim audit data to free storage. The question asks which deletion options you can use.

• What the options typically mean:

• About the provided answer (A, C, D): The list includes “by column,” which isn’t a typical or supported way to purge audit data. The more plausible trio is A (by record), B (date range), and C (by table older than date). If the exam expects A, C, D, that seems incorrect or mis-stated in the source.

• Practical takeaway: To reduce audit storage, use per-record deletions, per-table purge by date, and/or date-range deletions as supported by the environment’s audit management UI or admin docs.

• The correct permission is Manage Sandboxes (the official Salesforce name; the option in the list is written as “Manage Sandbox,” which is effectively the same idea but the canonical name uses the plural).
• Why: Sandboxes are a lifecycle feature. Only users with the explicit Manage Sandboxes permission can perform create, delete, refresh, or activate actions.
• Why the other options aren’t correct:

Why

cmd 
PowerShell.exe -ExecutionPolicy Bypass -File C:\Scripts\ConfigureVM.ps1

Why the other options are less suitable

• GPO logon script: Runs only when a user logs on and may not run during initial VM provisioning.
• GPO startup script: Can work, but requires the VM to be joined to the domain and the policy to be applied. It is also normally evaluated at each startup.
• Place scripts in a VHD: Merely placing scripts on a disk does not cause them to execute.

• Answer:

• Why:

• Why the other centers aren’t the right fit here:

• Assign a Teams license to a user — Licenses are assigned through the Microsoft 365 admin center, Microsoft Entra ID, or PowerShell.
• Deploy the Teams client — The Teams admin center manages Teams policies and apps, but it is not the primary tool for deploying the desktop client.
• Prevent users from creating teams — Team creation depends on controlling the creation of Microsoft 365 groups, generally configured through Microsoft Entra ID and PowerShell rather than directly in the Teams admin center.

• B — Increase provisioned concurrency for Lambda

• D — Refactor the Lambda functions

• E — Use Amazon RDS Proxy

• Multi-factor authentication
• A secure password change for users whose credentials may be compromised

• The question asks why some tasks appear locked in the HR Guided Setup Module’s Task view.
• The options are:

• C) They require other tasks to be completed first. In guided setup flows, tasks are usually gated by prerequisites to ensure proper sequencing and data/configuration dependencies. You typically unlock a task only after the necessary preceding tasks are finished.

• A) Elevated roles can restrict access in some contexts, but guided setup tasks are commonly gated by prerequisites rather than solely by role.
• B) Deprecation isn’t the general pattern for “locked” tasks in the guided setup.
• D) A plugin activation could unlock certain features, but the common gating mechanism is task dependencies, not plugin state.

• The page shows the answer as D, but based on how HR Guided Setup usually works, the more accurate reason is typically C (prerequisites). If you’re studying, treat C as the conceptual answer and be aware the listed key may be incorrect. If you want, I can walk through each option in more detail.

• Correct answer: A
• What this is saying: You need to write a Transact-SQL query that uses REGEXP_SUBSTR to extract the ID from MessageText, and you should apply STRING_ESCAPE(MessageText, 'json') before calling REGEXP_SUBSTR.

• MessageText may contain JSON characters (quotes, backslashes, etc.). Escaping the JSON content first ensures the string you pass to the regex is safe and won’t confuse the regex engine.
• The pattern you apply with REGEXP_SUBSTR would then extract the first substring that matches your ID pattern from the (escaped) text.

• Example (conceptual):

• The question implies REGEXP_SUBSTR is available in this environment; some SQL Server and Fabric contexts don’t expose it natively in all versions. If REGEXP_SUBSTR isn’t available, you’d need an alternative approach (e.g., using built-in regex-like capabilities or CLR/UDFs).
• If you need the ID specifically from the first paragraph, you might first isolate the first paragraph and then apply REGEXP_SUBSTR, or compose a single pattern that anchors to the first paragraph.