ASIS ASIS-PSP Exam Prep
Physical Security Professional (PSP) (Page 4 )

• Training data for potential bias before model training
• Trained models for bias in predictions
• Model features to help explain how they influence predictions

• A: RAG workflows are typically built using services such as Amazon Bedrock, knowledge bases, and data sources.
• B: Monitoring model quality in production is primarily associated with SageMaker Model Monitor.
• C: Documenting model details is handled by capabilities such as SageMaker Model Cards.

1. Create Workspace2 with Lakehouse2 — F
2. Migrate the Employee table to Lakehouse2 — E
3. Assign the data engineer the Contributor role for Workspace1 — D

Why

• Sharing Lakehouse1 would not provide the required isolation.
• Viewer access would not allow writing to Customer.
• Giving Contributor access to Workspace2 would expose the sensitive table.

• Something you know: Password or PIN
• Something you have: Security token, smart card, or phone receiving an authentication code
• Something you are: Fingerprint or facial recognition
• Somewhere you are: Location-based verification

• \Pipeline1
• \Folder1\Lakehouse1

• Pipeline1 remains at the workspace root in Workspace1, so it is deployed to the root of Workspace2.
• Lakehouse1 was moved into Folder1, so its full path is preserved as \Folder1\Lakehouse1.
• Fabric deployment pipelines preserve folder paths because an item’s full path is treated as part of its name.

• Security controls
• Processes and procedures
• Compliance evidence
• Performance against contractual requirements

• Service-level agreement (SLA): Defines expected service performance, such as uptime and response times.
• Memorandum of agreement (MOA): Documents a general agreement between parties, but does not necessarily provide audit rights.
• Supply chain analysis: Identifies risks across suppliers and dependencies, but is not a contractual mechanism for reviewing vendor controls.

CIMA P3 topics

• IT governance and systems strategy
• Systems development and implementation
• Change and project governance
• Strategic and business risk

• A — Plan for new systems: The committee should help identify and prioritise systems requirements and ensure planned systems support organisational needs.
• D — Consider competitive issues: New information systems may affect Y’s competitive position, service quality and efficiency. These strategic implications should be considered.
• E — Ensure the system meets company goals: This is a key governance responsibility. The committee should ensure the project remains aligned with Y’s objectives and delivers business value.

• B — Develop new systems: Detailed system development should be performed by IT specialists and project teams, not the steering committee.
• C — Manage the project: The project manager should handle day-to-day project management. The steering committee should provide oversight, challenge and key decisions, rather than manage daily activities.

• The listener uses a virtual IP address shared by the availability-group replicas.
• Floating IP, also called Direct Server Return (DSR), allows the SQL Server nodes to respond using the listener’s IP address rather than their individual VM IP addresses.
• This is required for the availability-group listener to function correctly with an Azure internal load balancer.

• Defender for Servers is the Defender for Cloud plan that protects Azure VMs and generates security alerts that can be reviewed in Defender for Cloud.
• Azure Diagnostics extension collects guest OS monitoring data, but it does not onboard VMs to Defender for Cloud or provide Defender security alerts.
• Data connectors are used for Sentinel integrations.
• Azure Storage Analytics and workflow automation do not provide VM protection.

• Penetration test: Tests for exploitable vulnerabilities; it does not provide a broad opinion on whether security controls operate effectively.
• Annual self-assessment: Not independent, so it provides less assurance.
• Allow each client the right to audit: Inefficient because every customer may conduct a separate audit, creating duplicated effort and disruption.

• Vulnerability scanner: Finds known technical weaknesses in systems or applications, but does not provide complete supply-chain visibility.
• Penetration test: Simulates attacks against defined targets; it is narrower than a full supply-chain analysis.
• SCAP: A set of standards and protocols for automated security configuration and vulnerability assessment, not a comprehensive supply-chain mapping tool.

• SOSL searches text across objects and is not appropriate for selecting Account table columns.
• describeSObjects() provides metadata about objects and fields, but it does not itself build or execute the query.
• Dynamic Schema binding supports runtime determination of object and field information, which is required here.
• REST API is unnecessary because this is being implemented in Apex.

• Access List: controls whether a client is allowed or denied.
• Connect List: controls which wireless networks/APs a station may connect to.

• Create the field in the CRM on the relevant person records—typically Lead and Contact in Salesforce.
• Give the Marketo Sync User read/write access to the field.

• A — Consumption-based pricing: AWS generally uses a pay-as-you-go model. You pay for the resources you consume rather than purchasing hardware upfront or paying for unused capacity.
• C — Economies of scale: AWS purchases and operates infrastructure at a very large scale, allowing it to reduce costs and pass some savings to customers through lower service prices.

• Perpetual licenses: These involve paying once for permanent software ownership and are not a primary AWS Cloud economic benefit.
• AWS Enterprise Support at no additional cost: Enterprise Support has an additional charge.
• Bring-your-own-hardware model: AWS provides and manages the underlying cloud infrastructure; customers do not normally bring their own physical servers.

• Additional running costs: $800
• Less depreciation: $300

• The $100 reduction in fixed production overhead absorbed is only an accounting reallocation. It does not represent an actual saving in total fixed overhead.

• Deterrent control: The signs warn people they may be filmed. This can discourage unauthorized activity because individuals know surveillance is present.
• Detective control: CCTV monitors and records activity, helping identify or investigate incidents after—or while—they occur.

• Preventive: Stops an incident from occurring; CCTV generally does not physically prevent access.
• Corrective: Restores systems after an incident.
• Directive: Tells people what they must do, such as a security policy.
• Compensating: An alternative control used when the preferred control cannot be implemented.

• A. IDS attack signatures: An IDS mainly detects suspicious network traffic. It is not the best control for scanning uploaded documents.
• C. Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers and can improve availability, but does not specifically detect malware.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications from attacks such as SQL injection and command injection. It may inspect web requests, but malware scanning of PDF files is not its primary function.

• A. Continue using the current system: It will eventually fail and offers no recovery strategy.
• B. Virtualize the entire system: Correct. A VM can preserve the old OS, application, settings, and dependencies while running on newer physical hardware.
• C. Containerize the application: Containers generally share the host OS kernel and are not suitable for preserving an entire incompatible legacy OS.
• D. Clone the disks to USB: A disk clone may provide backup or temporary recovery, but it does not solve hardware compatibility or provide a reliable long-term platform.

• C — Some risks cannot be eliminated.

• D — Accepting residual risk does not imply recklessness.

• E — Most companies in this industry will say something similar.

• Labels control access and protection, not blanket exclusion.
• If the user has permission to open a labeled file—especially if the label allows authenticated users to view it—Copilot can use that file in a summary.
• If the label applies encryption and the user lacks the required usage rights, Copilot should not use the file or reveal its contents.
• Copilot honors the user’s existing permissions, so it should not expose labeled content to an unauthorized user.

• Use the grant-date fair value: $30
• Do not remeasure to the year-end value of $45
• Update the estimate of employees expected to vest

• Dr Share-based payment expense $450,000
• Cr Equity/share option reserve $450,000

Statement 1 — Correct

Statement 2 — Correct

Box 1: No

• configure_azure_monitor() configures Azure Monitor and the OpenTelemetry pipeline.
• LangChain requires its own instrumentation or callback tracer, such as AzureAIOpenTelemetryTracer.
• You must pass the tracer to the LangChain execution configuration so chains, tools, prompts, and model calls become spans in Application Insights.

Box 2: Yes

text 
OTEL_SERVICE_NAME=customer-agent 
OTEL_SERVICE_NAME=invoice-agent

• Deploy five individual VMs: This does not create a VM scale set.
• Modify Availability Zones or Size settings: These actions do not create the required scale set and add unnecessary steps.
• VM orchestration mode: This is Flexible orchestration, intended for more individually managed VMs and mixed configurations. It is not the best choice for a straightforward group of identical instances.

• Load balancer: Distributes application traffic; it does not protect switch MAC tables.
• IPS: May detect some attack traffic, but it is not the primary control for switch-port MAC learning.
• NGFW: Protects at network boundaries but does not directly limit MAC addresses learned on access ports.

• Escape to host: A virtualization attack where code escapes a guest VM and accesses the host system. Nothing in the scenario mentions virtualization.
• Browser extension: Can redirect or manipulate web-browser traffic, but not normally database-server traffic.
• Valid accounts: Describes using stolen or compromised credentials, not redirecting network traffic.
• Process injection: Injecting malicious code into a legitimate database or networking process could allow an attacker to alter how that process handles outgoing traffic.

• Espionage: Stealing confidential information, often for a competitor or foreign entity.
• Data exfiltration: Unauthorized removal or transfer of data.
• Nation-state attack: A cyberattack sponsored or conducted by a government.
• Shadow IT: Unapproved technology or services used outside IT oversight.

• Data owners: Decide who should have access and approve the access rules.
• Business process owners: May help define business requirements, but normally do not enforce technical permissions.
• Security steering committee: Provides governance and direction; it does not manage individual access rights.
• Security administrators: Apply and enforce the approved access controls.

• SQL injection
• Cross-site scripting (XSS)
• Malicious or malformed web requests
• Some application-layer attacks

• Layer 4 firewall: Filters based mainly on IP addresses, ports, and transport protocols; it cannot deeply inspect web application content.
• NGFW: Provides advanced network filtering and may include application awareness, but a WAF is more specifically designed to protect web applications.
• UTM: Combines several security functions in one appliance, but it is not the most targeted solution for a web portal.

• Suspended an operator who correctly refused to use unsafe equipment.
• Rewarded another operator for using the equipment despite the broken safety guard.

• A — Management is not particularly concerned with managing risks.

• B — Employees will perceive that management does not care about health and safety risks.

• C — This factory’s safety record is likely to be poor.

• Identity: User-assigned managed identity

• Authorization: Azure RBAC

• Explain questions from the exam page
• Check whether the stated answer is technically correct
• Compare answer choices and eliminate distractors
• Clarify Azure AI concepts and terminology
• Point out when an answer key appears unreliable or when an image is missing

1. Wireless AP

1. Router

1. Firewall

1. Device placement

1. Search & Intelligence in the Microsoft 365 admin center — No

1. Audit in the Microsoft Defender portal — Yes

1. Audit in the Microsoft Purview portal — Yes

• Report on the discount approval time for quotes

• Dashboard of opportunity stage duration

• Lead conversion trends measure lead-generation effectiveness, not opportunity closing time.
• Campaign ROI evaluates marketing performance, not delays in the sales process.

• Customer needs: Primary focus in agile; guides prioritization and decision-making.
• Organization’s needs: Important constraints, but processes should be tailored when they create waste.
• Agile lead/project manager: Their role is to facilitate value delivery, not prioritize their own preferences.

• A. IDS attack signatures: An IDS primarily detects suspicious network activity; it is not the best tool for scanning uploaded files.
• C. Load balancer: Improves availability and distributes traffic but does not inspect files for malware.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications against attacks such as SQL injection and command injection. It may inspect HTTP requests, but malware scanning of uploaded PDFs is the key requirement here.

• User1 (user1@contoso.com) — This is an external guest in the Fabrikam tenant. Assuming the guest uses email one-time passcode authentication, Azure AD emails a passcode to user1@contoso.com.
• User2 (user2@outlook.com) — An Outlook.com address can authenticate with a Microsoft account, so Azure AD uses that account’s authentication rather than sending an email OTP. The fact that User2 has never accessed Fabrikam resources does not by itself trigger OTP.
• User3 (user3@fabrikam.com) — This is an internal Fabrikam user, so the user signs in with the organization’s normal credentials and does not receive a guest OTP.

• Accept: Acknowledges the risk without taking additional action.
• Transfer: Shifts the risk or financial impact to another party, such as an insurer.
• Mitigate: Reduces the likelihood or impact through controls like patching, MFA, or segmentation.
• Avoid: Eliminates the activity that creates the risk.

• Deterrent control: The signs warning people they may be filmed discourage unauthorized or malicious behavior. They may prevent incidents by influencing behavior, but their primary purpose is to deter.
• Detective control: The CCTV system monitors and records activity so security personnel can identify suspicious or unauthorized actions.

• Preventive: Blocks or prevents an incident, such as a lock or access-control system.
• Corrective: Fixes or restores systems after an incident.
• Directive: Tells people what they must do, typically through policies or procedures.
• Compensating: Provides an alternative control when the preferred control cannot be used.

• Create a CodeCommit repository in the secondary Region.
• Use CodeBuild to run a Git mirror operation from the primary repository to the secondary repository.
• Use EventBridge to detect relevant repository events, such as a pull request being merged.
• Invoke a Lambda function, which starts the CodeBuild project.

• B: Amazon S3 is object storage, not a Git repository that developers can use as a CodeCommit remote.
• C: CodeArtifact is intended for packages and artifacts, not source-code repository mirroring.
• D: An AWS Cloud9 environment is not an appropriate automated replication mechanism and would require manual or persistent infrastructure management.

• Act as the default gateway for devices in that VLAN
• Route traffic between different VLANs
• Provide management access to the switch

text 
interface vlan 10 
 ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0

• Required response time
• Resolution time
• Availability or uptime
• Support hours
• Performance targets
• Consequences if targets are missed

• SOW (Statement of Work): Defines the project’s scope, tasks, deliverables, and schedule.
• MOA (Memorandum of Agreement): Describes the responsibilities and commitments between parties.
• MOU (Memorandum of Understanding): Documents a general mutual understanding or intent, often before a formal agreement.

• A — Improved management of storage space: Correct.

• B — Improved supplier relationships: Correct.

• C — Improved pricing decisions: Correct.

• D — Non-product-specific costs must be apportioned: Incorrect.

• E — Profitability of each customer group: Incorrect.

• Authentication: Verifies who the user is.
• Authorization: Determines what the authenticated user is allowed to access.
• Accounting: Records activity such as login times and resource usage.

• CIA: Confidentiality, integrity, and availability—the three core security goals.
• ACL: Access Control List, which defines permitted or denied traffic or access.
• PEM: A certificate and key encoding format, not the primary function of RADIUS.

• Case Assignment Rules normalmente são avaliadas quando o caso é criado. Elas podem ser executadas novamente em uma edição somente se o usuário marcar “Assign using active assignment rules”; isso não acontece automaticamente apenas porque o caso foi fechado.
• Portanto, criar uma regra de atribuição não corrige os centenas de casos já fechados e não garante, por si só, que um caso será transferido antes de ser fechado.

• B — Usar uma ferramenta de dados: corrige os registros históricos já existentes, atualizando o Owner.
• D — Criar uma regra de validação: impede que um caso seja fechado enquanto ainda pertence a uma fila. Exemplo conceitual: se Status = Closed e o proprietário for uma fila, bloquear o salvamento.

• C — Create a form extension and implement validation

• D — Use Chain of Command (CoC) with a form extension class

• MFA: Protects sign-in and authentication.
• Azure Key Vault: Protects deployment secrets and credentials.
• Answer: No (B).