CDMP DMF Exam Prep
Data Management Fundamentals (Page 31 )

• Load balancer: Distributes application traffic; it does not protect switch MAC tables.
• IPS: May detect some attack traffic, but it is not the primary control for switch-port MAC learning.
• NGFW: Protects at network boundaries but does not directly limit MAC addresses learned on access ports.

• Suspended an operator who correctly refused to use unsafe equipment.
• Rewarded another operator for using the equipment despite the broken safety guard.

• A — Management is not particularly concerned with managing risks.

• B — Employees will perceive that management does not care about health and safety risks.

• C — This factory’s safety record is likely to be poor.

• Highly polished, organization-wide presentations
• Advanced dashboard design and customization
• Broader business-user distribution and interaction
• Specialized BI governance and modeling features

• IaaS: você gerencia a VM e o sistema operacional.
• PaaS: o Azure gerencia a infraestrutura; você se concentra no aplicativo.

• Admin access to the deployment pipeline
• Contributor access to the Development and Test workspaces
• Viewer access to the Production workspace

• Insert is used when you are creating a new record. It saves the record to the table and then leaves the form.
• Update is used when editing an existing record. It saves the modifications and then leaves the form.

• nmap - 10.11.1.130 — a network scanning command; mitigated with controls such as firewalls, monitoring, or access restrictions.
• “Click this link to get your free gift card.” — a phishing or social-engineering message; addressed through user awareness, email filtering, and authentication controls.
• “Your connection is not private.” — indicates a certificate or TLS validation problem; addressed by correcting the certificate or secure-connection configuration.

• B — Data source settings in Power BI Desktop:

• D — Formula bar in Power Query Editor:

m 
  Excel.Workbook(File.Contents("new path"))

• E — Advanced Editor in Power Query Editor:

• A: Dataset settings in the Power BI service mainly handle credentials and gateway settings, not changing the local file path embedded in the PBIX.
• C: Current File data-load settings control refresh/load behavior, not the source location.

• Disable default accounts: Default or unused accounts may have known usernames or predictable settings, making them targets. They should be disabled, removed, or securely configured.
• Remove unnecessary services: Every running service creates potential vulnerabilities. Removing services the server does not need reduces exploitable entry points.

• Add the server to the asset inventory: Important for asset management, but not a hardening step.
• Document default passwords: Default passwords should be changed or eliminated—not documented for continued use.
• Send server logs to the SIEM: Valuable for monitoring and detection, but generally performed as part of logging/monitoring configuration.
• Join the server to the corporate domain: May be necessary operationally, but does not itself harden the server.

• A: It allows for branching and merging...

• C: It allows multiple engineers to work against the same code and configuration files and manage differences and conflicts.

• B: Build automation and infrastructure provisioning are handled by CI/CD and automation tools, not by version control alone.
• D: User Stories and backlogs are managed by project-management tools.
• E: Version control stores and tracks code, but it does not itself ensure that developers write effective unit tests.

• Error correction (ECC): Improves data reliability but does not maximize bandwidth.
• RAM voltage: Increasing voltage may affect stability or speed, but it is not the primary method for increasing module bandwidth.
• Physical module size: Refers to the capacity or form factor of the RAM, not its data-transfer bandwidth.

• The CSV contains the external users’ email addresses.
• The bulk invitation feature supports inviting many guest users in one operation.
• Each invited user becomes a guest account in contoso.com.

• Suspended an operator who refused to use unsafe equipment.
• Paid another operator a bonus for using it.
• Prioritised short-term productivity over employee safety.

• A — Management is not particularly concerned with managing risks.

• B — Employees will perceive that management does not care about health and safety risks.

• C — The factory’s safety record is likely to be poor.

• The users currently have Office 365 Enterprise E3 licenses assigned directly.
• Assigning Microsoft 365 Enterprise E5 through a group does not automatically remove their directly assigned E3 licenses.
• From the Licenses blade, you can select the E3 product and remove it from all assigned users in one operation. This requires less effort than editing 2,500 users individually.

• Identity Governance manages access reviews, entitlement management, and related governance—not bulk license removal.
• Set-AzureAdUser does not remove product licenses.
• Set-WindowsProductKey applies Windows product keys and is unrelated to Microsoft 365 licensing.

1. Wireless AP

1. Router

1. Firewall

1. Device placement

• Authentication: Verifies who the user is.
• Authorization: Determines what the authenticated user is allowed to access.
• Accounting: Records activity such as login times and resource usage.

• CIA: Confidentiality, integrity, and availability—the three core security goals.
• ACL: Access Control List, which defines permitted or denied traffic or access.
• PEM: A certificate and key encoding format, not the primary function of RADIUS.

• IRR assumes that interim cash flows can be reinvested at the project’s own IRR. This may be unrealistic, especially when the IRR is very high.
• MIRR assumes reinvestment at a specified rate, usually the company’s cost of capital or another realistic reinvestment rate.

• B: MIRR does not specifically favour projects with long payback periods.
• C: MIRR and IRR can rank competing projects differently.
• D: MIRR is not always higher than IRR; it may be higher or lower depending on the cash flows and reinvestment rate.

• Box 1: No — The rule requires user.department to equal Engineering. Engineer does not match, so User1 is not in AU1. Admin1 cannot reset User1’s password.
• Box 2: No — Admin1’s role is scoped to AU1 and cannot manage users outside that AU.
• Box 3: Yes — Admin2 is a Global Administrator and can reset User3’s password.

• Note the question number before leaving—for example, Question 38.
• Use the exam’s question navigator or Back/Previous button to return to that number.
• If you close or refresh the page, your position may not be saved, depending on the site. Reopen the page and select the question number again.
• Avoid using the browser’s Back button if it causes the exam page to reload; use the exam’s built-in navigation instead.

• Response and resolution time frames
• Availability or uptime requirements
• Performance targets
• Support obligations
• Penalties for failing to meet requirements

• SOW (Statement of Work): Defines the project’s scope, tasks, and deliverables.
• MOA (Memorandum of Agreement): Describes cooperation and responsibilities between parties.
• MOU (Memorandum of Understanding): Records a general mutual understanding, usually without detailed enforceable service targets.

• A class/teacher fact should contain one row per Class ID. It can support the count of classes and contain attributes such as Teacher First Name and Period Number.
• An attendance fact should contain one row per attendance event, such as Class ID + student + date. It supports attendance counts by day and monthly averages.

• Teacher First Name ? Teacher fact
• Period Number ? Attendance fact

1. Write a structured log entry to CloudWatch Logs containing:

1. Create a CloudWatch Logs metric filter that:

text 
ApiRequests 
Operation=GetOrders 
ResponseCode=500 
Version=2.4.0

• B is incorrect: CloudWatch Logs Insights queries analyze logs but do not directly publish metrics in this manner.
• C is incorrect: ALB access logs do not contain arbitrary Lambda response metadata as custom fields.
• D is incorrect: X-Ray traces and insights are not the appropriate mechanism for creating these custom, dimensioned application metrics.

• Customer information must not be revealed ? PII Detection
• Malicious instructions embedded in images/documents must be blocked ? Prompt Shields

• If the question allows multiple selections, choose PII Detection and Prompt Shields.
• If it requires one selection specifically for the image-based threat, choose Prompt Shields.

• Virus signatures: Primarily associated with antivirus or antimalware tools.
• Security agent deployment: Usually handled by endpoint-management or endpoint-security platforms.
• Vulnerability scanning: Performed by vulnerability-assessment tools, although a SIEM may ingest their results.

Correct reasoning

• Create storage5 as a General-purpose v2 (StorageV2) account.
• Configure Blob object replication from storage5 to an existing compatible storage account.
• The destination must support object replication—typically another StorageV2 or premium block blob account.
• Blob versioning must be enabled on both accounts.
• Blob change feed must be enabled on the source account.
• The accounts must meet Azure’s object-replication requirements, including being in supported regions and having compatible configuration.

1. Open Notepad as Administrator.
2. Open:

1. Remove or correct the line mapping the website to the wrong IP address.
2. Save the file.
3. Optionally run:

cmd 
   ipconfig /flushdns

• Espionage: Stealing confidential information, often for a competitor or foreign entity.
• Data exfiltration: Unauthorized removal or transfer of data.
• Nation-state attack: A cyberattack sponsored or conducted by a government.
• Shadow IT: Unapproved technology or services used outside IT oversight.

• A. Adjust resolution: Incorrect because an incompatible resolution usually causes no display, distortion, or an unsupported-mode message—not intermittent flickering.
• B. Swap the HDMI cable: Correct. Replacing the common, easily tested component is the appropriate troubleshooting step.
• C. Replace the projector: Incorrect because the issue also occurs with a monitor.
• D. Configure refresh rate: A mismatched refresh rate can cause visual problems, but the repeated flicker across displays points more strongly to the cable.

• B. Versioned configuration files — Infrastructure is defined in machine-readable files and tracked in version control, allowing repeatable provisioning and change history.
• D. Docker files — Assuming “Doctor files” is a typo for Dockerfiles, a Dockerfile declaratively defines how to build a container image and is commonly considered infrastructure/configuration as code.

• A. Cloned virtual machine images — These are prebuilt infrastructure artifacts, but cloning an image is not itself a code-based infrastructure definition.
• C. Change management database records — A CMDB records information about infrastructure; it does not define or provision that infrastructure.

• Accept: Acknowledges the risk without taking additional action.
• Transfer: Shifts the risk or financial impact to another party, such as an insurer.
• Mitigate: Reduces the likelihood or impact through controls like patching, MFA, or segmentation.
• Avoid: Eliminates the activity that creates the risk.

• A is incorrect: Flow Debugger is for debugging Salesforce Flows, not Trust Layer masking.
• B is incomplete/misleading: Requesting audit data may be part of reviewing the results, but collection and storage must first be enabled.
• C is correct: It describes the initial validation step.

• Run the backup with WITH CHECKSUM
• Store the backup on an SMB network share

sql 
BACKUP DATABASE DB1 
TO DISK = '\\FileServer\SqlBackups\DB1_full.bak' 
WITH CHECKSUM;

• DMS does not create the SQL Server backups for you.
• You must provide a valid full database backup.
• You must continue taking transaction log backups while the source database remains online.
• The full backup and subsequent log backups must be available in the SMB share that DMS can access.
• WITH CHECKSUM enables backup checksum validation, helping detect backup corruption.

• STP elects the switch with the lowest Bridge ID as the root bridge.
• The Bridge ID consists mainly of bridge priority + MAC address.
• If multiple switches have the same priority, the switch with the lower MAC address is preferred.
• STP bridge priority values are configured in increments of 4096, such as 0, 4096, 8192, and so on. 32768 is the standard default value.

• A password cracker would normally be identified by behavior such as loading password hashes or attempting dictionary/brute-force attacks.
• The question describes a routine audit, not password recovery.
• Simply encountering a protected file during an audit is characteristic of a misconfigured or insufficiently privileged FIM.

• Third-party attestation: Provides independent confirmation, often for formal compliance reporting, but is not usually performed frequently.
• Penetration testing: Attempts to exploit vulnerabilities; it focuses on technical security, not overall compliance procedures.
• Vulnerability scans: Identify known technical weaknesses in systems, but do not evaluate whether policies and processes meet compliance requirements.

• A. IDS attack signatures: An IDS primarily detects suspicious network activity; it is not the best control for scanning uploaded documents for malware.
• C. Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers and improves availability, but does not inspect files for malware.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications against attacks such as SQL injection and command injection. It may help secure the upload function, but malware scanning is the key requirement here.

• WPA3: Secures wireless traffic but does not normally verify whether someone has paid.
• PSK: A shared Wi-Fi password gives access to anyone who knows it; it cannot easily validate individual receipts.
• IEEE 802.1X: Provides user/device authentication, commonly through an authentication server, but is excessive and not designed specifically for a simple receipt-based guest-access workflow.

• Deterministic approve/reject results
• Strict adherence to predefined rules
• Consistent, reproducible outcomes
• Auditability and regulatory compliance

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• Menyebutkan jawaban yang benar.
• Menjelaskan alasan jawaban tersebut.
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• Layer 1: Check cables, power, and link lights.
• Layer 2: Check switching, VLANs, and MAC learning.
• Layer 3: Check IP addressing, routing, and gateways.
• Higher layers: Check services, applications, and user settings.

• Create a plan of action: Decide how to implement the fix.
• Implement the solution: Apply the selected fix.
• Verify functionality: Confirm the problem is resolved and systems work normally.

• Vulnerability scanner: Finds known technical weaknesses in systems or applications, but does not provide complete supply-chain visibility.
• Penetration test: Simulates attacks against defined targets; it is narrower than a full supply-chain analysis.
• SCAP: A set of standards and protocols for automated security configuration and vulnerability assessment, not a comprehensive supply-chain mapping tool.

• B — Both inner and outer classes can be declared as with sharing.

• C — Inner classes do not inherit sharing settings from the container class.

apex 
public with sharing class OuterClass { 
    public with sharing class InnerClass { 
        // Explicitly uses sharing rules 
    } 
}