Free CFA I Exam Braindumps
CFA Level I Chartered Financial Analyst Questions 1626–1630 (page: 327)

Updated On: 9-Feb-2026

The portion of the insurance premiums that has expired during the fiscal period is classified as:

  1. an expense
  2. an asset
  3. an increase in retained earnings
  4. a liability

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

In accordance with the matching rule, the amount of an insurance policy that has expired during the accounting period must be recorded and classified as an expense for the period.



Which of the following is/are true about the cash conversion cycle?

  1. It increases as the inventory turnover ratio decreases.
    II. It decreases as inventory processing period decreases.
    III. It is directly proportional to the payables payment period.
    IV. It increases as the cash ratio decreases.
  2. II, III & IV
  3. I & IV
  4. II & III
  5. I & II

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The cash conversion cycle is a measure of how long the cash is tied up in short term loans and credits. These short-term financing items include receivables, inventory and accounts payable. Therefore cash conversion cycle is defined as: CCC = (Average receivables collection period) plus (Average inventory processing time) minus (Average payables payment period). Now, an increase in inventory ratio decreases inventory processing time, lowering the CCC. Also, an increase in the payables payment period decreases the CCC. However, CCC is independent of the cash ratio.



When a firm experiences LIFO liquidation under rising prices, it recognizes:

  1. lower COGS and lower cash flows.
  2. lower COGS and higher cash flows.
  3. higher COGS and lower cash flows.
  4. higher COGS and higher cash flows.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

In LIFO liquidation under rising prices, the quantity of goods purchased during a period is less than the quantity sold. This leads to a sale of goods purchased in prior periods at lower prices (since prices are rising). This understates the cost-of-goods-sold (COGS), thus overstating the income and causing higher taxes than in the absence of the LIFO liquidation. The higher taxes cause a higher cash outflow. (This is an extremely important topic with which you should be completely familiar.)



An analysis of a firm's financial statements indicates that the average age of its assets is declining. This could be due to which of the following?

  1. The firm is acquiring new assets with longer depreciable lives.
    II. The firm's capital expenditures are outpacing depreciation.
    III. The firm is not using its assets as intensively as it should.
    IV. The firm is operating in its maturity phase.
  2. I & IV
  3. I & II
  4. I, II, III & IV
  5. III & IV

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Note that the firm is likely not in a maturity or declining phase but in a growth phase, which is characterized by increasing capital investments.



A cash flow statement using the indirect method

  1. is as informative as using the direct method.
  2. begins with a firm's cash collections.
  3. uses major categories of gross cash receipts and payments.
  4. provides little new information into a firm's cash-generating ability.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Because of the indirect format, it is not possible to compare operating cash inflows and outflows by function with the revenue and expense activities that generated them.



Viewing page 327 of 793
Viewing questions 1631 - 1635 out of 3960 questions


Post your Comments and Discuss CFA CFA I exam prep with other Community members:

AI Tutor AI Tutor 👋 I’m here to help!