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CFA Level I Chartered Financial Analyst Questions 1831–1835 (page: 368)

Updated On: 9-Feb-2026

The following is true about the price earnings ratio

  1. all of these answers are correct
  2. the ratio is calculated based on the expected earnings per share for the next period
  3. stocks have low PE ratios if they are less than five to eight and are considered underpriced
  4. it is the ratio between the company's current market value and its earnings per share

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

PE ratio is calculated based on expected earnings per share and a ratio of less than 5 to 8 makes a stock appear underpriced.



At the end of the fiscal period, the account debited to show the estimated amount of uncollectible accounts is

  1. Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts
  2. None of these answers is correct.
  3. Accounts Receivable
  4. Bad Debt Expense
  5. Unearned Revenue

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The adjusting entry should recognize an expense and increase the allowance account.



Under US GAAP accounting, R&D expenses cannot be capitalized. They must be expensed as and when incurred. Which of the following is NOT a reason to support this practice?

  1. Most R&D activities represent intangible benefits which are hard to evaluate objectively from an accounting perspective.
  2. In most cases, there is a significant lag between R&D expenses and the determination of the potential success of the research.
  3. There remains a high uncertainty about the ultimate benefits to be derived from the R&D activities on which the expenses are incurred.
  4. R&D expenses are difficult to measure and hence, must be expensed in accordance with accrual accounting principles.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Note that R&D expenses are, for the most part, are clearly ear-marked as such and hence, are not difficult to measure. Of course, some of these expenses go into generating tangible assets like laboratories and flasks but these are easily measurable and do get capitalized under US GAAP. The other three reasons imply that it is difficult to measure the present value of the assets being generated (if at all) by the research. This prevents a consistent and reliable application of the accrual principles, which require allocation of expenses in proportion to the current benefits generated. Hence, US GAAP takes the easiest solution of expensing all the R&D costs.



Firm A uses Sum-of-digits and Firm B uses straight-line method of depreciation. In the first year, which of the following is/are TRUE?

  1. A shows higher equity than B.
    II. A shows lower assets than B.
    III. A shows a higher debt-to-equity ratio than B.
    IV. A shows a higher debt-to-asset ratio.
  2. III only
  3. I & III
  4. II, III & IV
  5. I & IV

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Sum-of-digits results in a higher depreciation in the first year. Hence, Firm A shows lower assets, lower income and hence lower equity. Thus, its debt-to-equity and debt-to-asset ratios are higher than B's.



Goodwill should:

  1. be expensed in the period in which it is purchased from another company or organization.
  2. not be amortized as it will be a benefit to the company over its entire life. Companies are assumed to have an indefinite life.
  3. written off over a 40 year period even if the superior earning power justifying its existence disappears.
  4. be amortized to income over a period not exceeding 40 years.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Goodwill can be amortized over a maximum of 40 years. However, goodwill should be amortized over a number of periods equal to its ability to deliver superior earning power unless that period is over 40 years.



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