Free CFA-Level-III Exam Braindumps (page: 20)

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Jack Rose and Ryan Boatman are analysts with Quincy Consultants. Quincy provides advice on risk management and performance presentation to pension plans, insurance firms, and other institutional portfolio managers throughout the United States and Canada.
Rose and Boatman are preparing an analysis of the defined benefit pension plans for four mature corporations in the United States. In an effort to ascertain the risk to the firm's shareholders from the plans. Rose and Boatman gather the information in Figure 1:

Figure 1: Pension Plan Data


While discussing how the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) for a corporation can be adjusted to incorporate pension asset risk. Rose and Boatman make the following comments:
• Rose: "From what I understand, in order to calculate a true weighted average cost of capital, management should consider the assets held in their pension plan. Because pension plans hold equity securities as assets, the plan assets usually have a higher weighted average beta than the sponsoring firm's operating assets. This means the typical firm's weighted average asset beta and cost of capital are higher than when calculated using only the operating assets. If management bases their accept/reject decisions on a weighted average cost of capital that considers only operating assets, they might accept projects that really should have been rejected."
• Boatman: "I'm not sure I agree with you. To match the maturity of their liabilities, pension plans like to hold at least half their assets in long maturity bonds. Then, since the bonds have a long weighted average duration, they have considerable interest rate sensitivity. This is really what makes the pension assets riskier than the firm's operating assets. However, since debt securities have zero betas, they have a low weighted average asset beta and the firm has a lower weighted average cost of capital when pension assets are considered than when they are not considered. The result of considering only the operating assets is that the weighted average cost of capital is inflated and management tends to incorrectly reject projects that could have been accepted." In a visit to the headquarters of Beeman Enterprises, Rose and Boatman explain how in an expanded balance sheet format, a change in a pension plan's asset allocation can result in a change in the firm's financial ratios. To illustrate the concept to the firm's chief financial officer, they provide three different scenarios (shown in Figure 2) indicating necessary changes in the firm's capital structure under the assumption that the firm's pension plan increases its allocation to equity and management wants to keep the sponsoring firm's cost of equity capital constant (i.e., constant equity beta).
Figure 2: Cost of Capital Scenarios

Quincy Consultants has also provided advice to Monroe Portfolio Managers. Among its investments, Monroe has a real estate portfolio that invests in shopping centers and office buildings throughout the southern United States. The firm has provided the following data to calculate and report quarterly returns to current and prospective investors. Additionally, the capital contribution came on day 47 (0.52 into the quarter) and the capital disbursement came on day 67 (0.74 into the quarter).

After calculating the capital return and income return for the portfolio, Rose and Boatman discuss the performance presentation standards for real estate and private equity portfolios. Discussing the differences between the general provisions of the GIPS standards and those for real estate and private equity portfolios, Rose states the following:
1. "The general provisions require that valuations take place monthly until 2010. For real estate, valuations could be done annually until 2008, but starting in 2008 quarterly valuations are required. For private equity, valuations should be performed annually."
2. "The performance standards in the general provisions for real estate and for private equity require that both gross-of-fees and net-of-fees returns are presented."
Also commenting on the differences between the various GIPS requirements, Boatman states the following:
1. "Although the general provisions for GIPS make the verification of GIPS compliance by an outside third party voluntary, the valuation of real estate and private equity by an outside third party is required by GIPS."
2. "The GIPS general provisions for real estate and for private equity require that both income and capital gains are included in the calculation and presentation of returns."

Determine whether Rose's two comments on the GIPS standards are correct or incorrect.

  1. Only statement 1 is correct.
  2. Only statement 2 is correct.
  3. Both statements are correct.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Comment 1 is correct. The general provisions require that valuations take place monthly until 2010. After 2010, valuations must also occur anytime a large external cash flow occurs. For real estate, valuations should take place annually until 2008, after which quarterly valuations are required. For private equity, valuations should take place annually.
Comment 2 is incorrect. The performance standards in the general provisions allow either gross or net of fees returns to be presented. The standards for real estate do not differ from the general provisions in this regard. For private equity, both net-of-fees and gross-of-fees return must be presented in the case of the composite since-inception internal rate of return. (Study Session 18, LOS 49.q)



Jack Rose and Ryan Boatman are analysts with Quincy Consultants. Quincy provides advice on risk management and performance presentation to pension plans, insurance firms, and other institutional portfolio managers throughout the United States and Canada.
Rose and Boatman are preparing an analysis of the defined benefit pension plans for four mature corporations in the United States. In an effort to ascertain the risk to the firm's shareholders from the plans. Rose and Boatman gather the information in Figure 1:

Figure 1: Pension Plan Data


While discussing how the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) for a corporation can be adjusted to incorporate pension asset risk. Rose and Boatman make the following comments:
• Rose: "From what I understand, in order to calculate a true weighted average cost of capital, management should consider the assets held in their pension plan. Because pension plans hold equity securities as assets, the plan assets usually have a higher weighted average beta than the sponsoring firm's operating assets. This means the typical firm's weighted average asset beta and cost of capital are higher than when calculated using only the operating assets. If management bases their accept/reject decisions on a weighted average cost of capital that considers only operating assets, they might accept projects that really should have been rejected."
• Boatman: "I'm not sure I agree with you. To match the maturity of their liabilities, pension plans like to hold at least half their assets in long maturity bonds. Then, since the bonds have a long weighted average duration, they have considerable interest rate sensitivity. This is really what makes the pension assets riskier than the firm's operating assets. However, since debt securities have zero betas, they have a low weighted average asset beta and the firm has a lower weighted average cost of capital when pension assets are considered than when they are not considered. The result of considering only the operating assets is that the weighted average cost of capital is inflated and management tends to incorrectly reject projects that could have been accepted." In a visit to the headquarters of Beeman Enterprises, Rose and Boatman explain how in an expanded balance sheet format, a change in a pension plan's asset allocation can result in a change in the firm's financial ratios. To illustrate the concept to the firm's chief financial officer, they provide three different scenarios (shown in Figure 2) indicating necessary changes in the firm's capital structure under the assumption that the firm's pension plan increases its allocation to equity and management wants to keep the sponsoring firm's cost of equity capital constant (i.e., constant equity beta).
Figure 2: Cost of Capital Scenarios

Quincy Consultants has also provided advice to Monroe Portfolio Managers. Among its investments, Monroe has a real estate portfolio that invests in shopping centers and office buildings throughout the southern United States. The firm has provided the following data to calculate and report quarterly returns to current and prospective investors. Additionally, the capital contribution came on day 47 (0.52 into the quarter) and the capital disbursement came on day 67 (0.74 into the quarter).

After calculating the capital return and income return for the portfolio, Rose and Boatman discuss the performance presentation standards for real estate and private equity portfolios. Discussing the differences between the general provisions of the GIPS standards and those for real estate and private equity portfolios, Rose states the following:
1. "The general provisions require that valuations take place monthly until 2010. For real estate, valuations could be done annually until 2008, but starting in 2008 quarterly valuations are required. For private equity, valuations should be performed annually."
2. "The performance standards in the general provisions for real estate and for private equity require that both gross-of-fees and net-of-fees returns are presented."
Also commenting on the differences between the various GIPS requirements, Boatman states the following:
1. "Although the general provisions for GIPS make the verification of GIPS compliance by an outside third party voluntary, the valuation of real estate and private equity by an outside third party is required by GIPS."

2. "The GIPS general provisions for real estate and for private equity require that both income and capital gains are included in the calculation and presentation of returns."

Determine whether Boatman's two comments on the GIPS standards are correct or incorrect.

  1. Only comment 1 is correct.
  2. Only comment 2 is correct.
  3. Both are correct.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Comment 1 is incorrect. It is true that the general provisions for GIPS make the verification of GIPS compliance by an outside third party voluntary and that real estate must be valued by an outside trained professional at least every three years.
However, there is no requirement that the valuation of private equity be performed by an outside third party. It is the case that the valuation must be performed in a professional manner by experienced individuals under the supervision of senior management.
Comment 2 is incorrect. Although both income and capital gains are required in the calculation of returns under al! GIPS provisions, presentation of both is not required under the general provisions. For real estate, it is required that both the capital return and income return be disclosed. Note that they must sum to the total return. In the case of private equity, the income return per se is not required to be disclosed, but the firm must present the values for the following: paid-in-capital; total invested capital; and cumulative distributions to date. The following multiples must also be presented: total value to paid-in-capital; cumulative distributions to date to paid- in-capital; and residual value to paid-in-capital. (Study Session 18, LOS 49.q)



Mark Stober, William Robertson, and James McGuire are consultants for a regional pension consultancy. One of their clients, Richard Smitherspoon, chief investment officer of Quality Car Part Manufacturing, recently attended a conference on risk management topics for pension plans. Smitherspoon is a conservative manager who prefers to follow a long-term investment strategy with little portfolio turnover. Smitherspoon has substantial experience in managing a defined benefit plan but has little experience with risk management issues.
Smitherspoon decides to discuss how Quality can begin implementing risk management techniques with Stober, Robertson, and McGuire. Quality's risk exposure is evaluated on a quarterly basis.
Before implementing risk management techniques, Smitherspoon expresses confusion regarding some measures of risk management. "I know beta and standard deviation, but what is all this stuff about convexity, delta, gamma, and vega?" Stober informs Smitherspoon that delta is the first derivative of the call-stock price curve, and Robertson adds that gamma is the relationship between how bond prices change with changing time to maturity.
Smitherspoon is still curious about risk management techniques, and in particular the concept of VAR. He asks, "What does a daily 5% VAR of $5 million mean? I just get so confused with whether VAR is a measure of maximum or minimum loss. Just last month, the consultant from MinRisk, a competing consulting firm, told me it was ‘a measure of maximum loss, which in your case means we are 95% confident that the maximum 1-day loss is $5.0 million." McGuire states that his definition of VAR is that "VAR is a measure that combines probabilities over a certain time horizon with dollar amounts, which in your case means that one expects to lose a minimum $5 million five trading days out of every 100."
Smitherspoon expresses bewilderment at the different methods for determining VAR. "Can't you risk management types formulate a method that works like calculating a beta? It would be so easy if there were a method that allowed one to just use mean and standard deviation. I need a VAR that I can get my arms around."
The next week, Stober visits the headquarters of TopTech, a communications firm. Their CFO is Ralph Long, who prefers to manage the firm's pension himself because he believes he can time the market and spot upcoming trends before analysts can. Long also believes that risk measurement for TopTech can be evaluated annually because of his close attention to the portfolio. Stober calculates TopTech's 95% surplus at risk to be S500 million for an annual horizon. The expected return on TopTech's asset base (currently at S2 billion) is 5%. The plan has a surplus of $100 million. Stober uses a 5% probability level to calculate the minimum amount by which the plan will be underfunded next year.

Regarding the statements on delta and gamma, are Stober and Robertson correct or incorrect?

  1. Only Stober is correct.
  2. Only Robertson is correct.
  3. Both are correct -OR- both are incorrect.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Stober is correct, and Robertson is incorrect.
Gamma is the second derivative of the change in the underlying asset price movements. Stober correctly defines delta. (Study Session 14, LOS 40.c)



Mark Stober, William Robertson, and James McGuire are consultants for a regional pension consultancy. One of their clients, Richard Smitherspoon, chief investment officer of Quality Car Part Manufacturing, recently attended a conference on risk management topics for pension plans. Smitherspoon is a conservative manager who prefers to follow a long-term investment strategy with little portfolio turnover. Smitherspoon has substantial experience in managing a defined benefit plan but has little experience with risk management issues.
Smitherspoon decides to discuss how Quality can begin implementing risk management techniques with Stober, Robertson, and McGuire. Quality's risk exposure is evaluated on a quarterly basis.
Before implementing risk management techniques, Smitherspoon expresses confusion regarding some measures of risk management. "I know beta and standard deviation, but what is all this stuff about convexity, delta, gamma, and vega?" Stober informs Smitherspoon that delta is the first derivative of the call-stock price curve, and Robertson adds that gamma is the relationship between how bond prices change with changing time to maturity.
Smitherspoon is still curious about risk management techniques, and in particular the concept of VAR. He asks, "What does a daily 5% VAR of $5 million mean? I just get so confused with whether VAR is a measure of maximum or minimum loss. Just last month, the consultant from MinRisk, a competing consulting firm, told me it was ‘a measure of maximum loss, which in your case means we are 95% confident that the maximum 1-day loss is $5.0 million." McGuire states that his definition of VAR is that "VAR is a measure that combines probabilities over a certain time horizon with dollar amounts, which in your case means that one expects to lose a minimum $5 million five trading days out of every 100."
Smitherspoon expresses bewilderment at the different methods for determining VAR. "Can't you risk management types formulate a method that works like calculating a beta? It would be so easy if there were a method that allowed one to just use mean and standard deviation. I need a VAR that I can get my arms around."
The next week, Stober visits the headquarters of TopTech, a communications firm. Their CFO is Ralph Long, who prefers to manage the firm's pension himself because he believes he can time the market and spot upcoming trends before analysts can. Long also believes that risk measurement for TopTech can be evaluated annually because of his close attention to the portfolio. Stober calculates TopTech's 95% surplus at risk to be S500 million for an annual horizon. The expected return on TopTech's asset base (currently at S2 billion) is 5%. The plan has a surplus of $100 million. Stober uses a 5% probability level to calculate the minimum amount by which the plan will be underfunded next year.
Regarding the definitions of VAR, are MinRisk and McGuire correct or incorrect?

  1. Both are correct.
  2. Neither is correct.
  3. One is correct.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Both MinRisk and McGuire are correct.
VAR can be considered a minimum loss expected over a time horizon at a given probability. In this particular case, one would expect to exceed the VAR 5% of the time. MinRisk interpretation is also correct. Watch the wording in VAR questions.
VAR is a measure that combines probabilities over a certain time horizon with dollar amounts, which in the statement means that one expects to lose at least $5 million in five trading days out of 100. (Study Session 14, LOS 40.e)



Page 20 of 91



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