CFA Sustainable-Investing Exam Actual Questions
Sustainable Investing Certificate(CFA-SIC) (Page 75 )

• Cutover: The old system is replaced immediately. It may be fast, but any failure can cause significant disruption.
• Phased: The system is introduced in stages, which reduces implementation risk but may prolong the transition.
• Pilot: The system is first deployed to a limited group or location. This is useful for testing but does not necessarily minimize downtime for the entire organization.

• Azure Resource Manager templates: Use ARM templates to define the VM infrastructure and baseline configuration as code. This ensures all Windows Server 2016 VMs are created with a uniform setup, minimizing manual configuration.

• PowerShell Desired State Configuration (DSC) extension for Windows: DSC enforces a defined state across all servers and can automatically remediate drift. This keeps the VMs in the desired configuration with minimal ongoing admin effort.

• Correct answer: D and E (Permanent table and Materialized view)

• Why: Time Travel and Fail-safe apply to permanent objects and materialized views. If a permanent object or a materialized view is dropped, you can recover it within the Time Travel retention period; after that, Snowflake’s Fail-safe provides a further, limited recovery window.

• Why the others are incorrect:

• Answer: No

• Why: Using several Azure AD directories (tenants) would create separate identity stores for each division, which significantly increases administrative overhead. You’d need cross-tenant access management, separate governance, and duplicated admin efforts, which goes against the goal of minimizing administrative work.

• How to meet the goal instead:

• Used for communication on the local link or LAN segment
• Automatically generated on IPv6-enabled interfaces
• Not routed by routers to other networks
• Commonly used by devices to communicate with their local IPv6 router
• Begins with FE80 through FEBF

• FC00::/7 — unique local unicast
• FE80::/10 — link-local unicast
• FF00::/8 — multicast
• 2000::/3 — global unicast

• What the scenario asks: You have a Power BI semantic model that pulls from multiple sources (Azure SQL Database and SharePoint Online), must support a single dataset for three reports, keep data current (daily refresh by 7 AM PT), and apply RLS to limit sales data by region. You need to choose a storage mode for the tables.

• Correct choice: Dual storage mode.

• Why Dual fits:

• Key concepts:

• Answer: Record Producer (option D)

• Why: In ServiceNow HR Service Delivery, to make an HR Service usable from the Employee Service Center (self-service portal), there must be a way for employees to submit the request. A Record Producer provides the employee-facing form that creates the underlying HR Case when submitted. Without a linked Record Producer, the HR Service wouldn’t offer a submit form in the Employee Center.

• What the other fields are generally for (not required for exposure):

• Quick check: Look at the HR Service definition and ensure a Record Producer is associated so employees can submit requests from the Employee Center.

• Quick context: In a three-tier network (Access, Distribution, Core), roles are:

• Why A is correct: The Distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies. It often handles VLAN access (L2) and can perform inter-VLAN routing or connect to the core (L3). So it makes sense for the distribution layer to support both L2 and L3.

• Why B is correct: The Core layer is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail. It is built for high availability and redundancy, providing multiple paths so the network remains reachable even if some components fail.

• Why the others are not correct:

• An IDS monitors network traffic for signs of attacks and raises alerts. It can be deployed out-of-band (via a SPAN/mirror port or a tap) so it analyzes traffic without being inline, meaning it doesn’t measurably affect latency.
• An IPS (intrusion prevention system) is inline and can block threats, but that processing can introduce some latency and potential throughput impact.
• A firewall also inspects traffic and can add latency, though usually modest with proper hardware, but its primary purpose isn’t continuous passive analysis.
• A load balancer distributes traffic and isn’t used for intrusion analysis.

• Correct options: C and D.

• The AWS Cloud Adoption Framework (CAF) security perspective focuses on capabilities to protect information and manage security risk.
• Observability (A) is primarily an operations/monitoring capability, not a core security capability under CAF.
• Incident and problem management (B) is IT service management/operations, not specifically a CAF security capability.
• Incident response (C) is a security-focused capability: detecting, containing, and recovering from security incidents.
• Infrastructure protection (D) involves applying security controls to protect the underlying infrastructure, which fits the security perspective.

• A) configure matching hold and delay timers

• B) configure matching key-strings

• C) configure matching priority values

• D) configure unique virtual IP addresses

• It is a sequence of distinct phases that flow one after another (requirements ? design ? implementation ? verification ? maintenance).
• Requirements are defined up front and changes are costly; the project often requires formal sign-off before moving to the next phase.
• It emphasizes heavy documentation and minimal iteration after a phase is completed.

• Phishing can map to two MITRE ATT&CK tactics depending on the attacker’s objective.

• Therefore, phishing isn’t confined to a single tactic; it can serve both Reconnaissance and Initial Access, which is why option D (Reconnaissance, Initial Access) is correct.

• Residual neural network (ResNet): Primarily used for computer vision tasks such as image classification.
• Support vector machine (SVM): Commonly used for classification and regression, not natural-language query generation.
• WaveNet: Designed mainly for generating or modeling audio and speech.

• Goal: serving a static website globally with minimal latency.
• Why C works: CloudFront is a Content Delivery Network (CDN) that caches content at many edge locations around the world. When users request the site, CloudFront serves cached copies from the nearest edge location, greatly reducing latency. It also reduces load on your EC2 origin by handling many requests at the edge.
• Why the other options aren’t as good:

• What it’s asking: In an ARM template, for an Availability Set, what value should you set for the property platformFaultDomainCount to maximize availability during fabric failures or maintenance?

• Key concept: Fault domains are groups of hardware that can fail independently. By spreading VMs across more fault domains, you reduce the risk that a single hardware fault takes out many VMs.

• Important detail: For managed Availability Sets, the number of fault domains you can use varies by region — typically 2 or 3.

• What to choose: Set platformFaultDomainCount to the maximum supported in your region. In most regions this is 3, which gives you the best resilience. If your region only supports 2, you’d use 2.

• Answer: 3 (Max Value). In ARM template syntax, this would appear as "platformFaultDomainCount": 3 (within the Availability Set resource).

• Server — provides services or resources
• Endpoint — a user device connected to the network
• Ethernet — a networking technology, not a filtering device
• Firewall — filters and controls traffic

• Correct answer: No (B).

• To deploy and manage Azure VMs, you use Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS). IaaS provides the actual virtual machines you configure, patch, and control.
• Platform as a Service (PaaS) abstracts infrastructure and OS management and is used for hosting applications (e.g., web apps) on managed runtimes, not for provisioning and managing individual VMs.

• Correct answer: A — a clear business case has been established.

• The audit focus for IT procurement is ensuring there is a solid economic justification for the investment. A clear business case documents the expected benefits, costs, risks, and alignment with strategic objectives, which governs whether the investment is worth pursuing.
• The other options are important controls or project aspects, but they are secondary to ensuring the investment is justified financially and strategically:

• A. Configure prompt modifications to enforce tone, disclaimers, and refusal behavior at the system level.

• D. Configure Power Platform DLP policies to restrict unauthorized data connectors.

• B: Manual topic-by-topic disclaimer edits are specifically discouraged.
• C: Channel settings do not replace agent-level Responsible AI controls.
• E: Publishing before enabling safety filters violates the stated deployment sequence. Responsible AI filters should be enabled before publication, not afterward.

• Custom domains
• 10 GB storage per web app
• Each app runs on dedicated compute
• Load balancing between instances is included
• Costs minimized

• Answer: A (Standard)

• Why:

• Note: In App Service, multiple apps in the same plan share compute resources. If you truly need isolation per app, you’d typically use separate App Service Plans, which increases cost beyond a single Standard plan.

• A) MTU mismatch: OSPF neighbors must exchange Hello packets with a compatible MTU. If MTUs differ, the neighbor conversation fails and the adjacency cannot become Full.

• B) Incorrect subnet mask: Routers must be in the same IP subnet on the connected link to form a neighbor relationship. A subnet mismatch prevents Hello packets from being considered valid on the same network.

• D) Area ID not the same: Neighbors must share the same Area ID. A mismatch stops adjacency from forming beyond the 2-Way state.

• E) Different metric set on each end of the link: Cost differences do not prevent OSPF adjacency; they affect routing decisions, not neighbor formation.
• F) Router ID not defined: OSPF can auto-choose a router ID; an undefined ID is not a prerequisite for adjacency to reach Full.

• What it says: you can add a cost when you adjust inventory, and that cost is posted automatically to a specific GL account.
• Reality: yes, you can adjust both quantity and value via an inventory adjustment journal. The cost on the journal line affects the inventory value.

• The general ledger postings are not arbitrary. the actual accounts used are determined by your item posting group and the system’s posting definitions. In practice, the adjustment debits/credits the appropriate inventory-related accounts (e.g., Inventory asset and a related offset such as an adjustment or COGS account) based on configuration.
• So, the cost change does not go to a single “manual” GL account you pick per line unless your posting setup maps to that account.

• The concept is true (you can adjust cost and have GL impact), but the claim that it posts to a single, specific GL account is oversimplified—the accounts come from your posting configuration.

• Progress iteratively with feedback focuses on making improvements in manageable steps and learning from feedback.
• Optimize and automate focuses on maximizing value from resources and automating suitable activities.
• Start where you are focuses on assessing the current situation and reusing what already exists.

• The correct option is A: Data architecture.

• Why: In the AWS CAF, the Platform perspective covers the technical foundation and architecture that enable cloud workloads to run reliably and efficiently. This includes how data is modeled, stored, and accessed across the enterprise—the core of data architecture.

• Quick mapping for the other options:

• Security Development Operations (SDO): a security-focused take on DevOps, integrating security into the development pipeline.
• Service Data Object (SDO): a data representation used in some middleware or enterprise apps.
• Software-Defined Overlay (SDO): a networking overlay concept.
• Secure Data Object: a generic data-security term.

• Answer: A — EC2 Image Builder

• Why: EC2 Image Builder is AWS’s fully managed service designed to automate the creation, testing, and ongoing management of custom EC2 AMIs. It lets you build image pipelines that start from a base image, apply software/components, run tests, and publish/distribute the resulting AMIs across regions or accounts.

• How it works (high level):

• Why not the other options:

• Quick tip: Use EC2 Image Builder to reduce manual image maintenance and drift, and to enforce consistent, tested base images across environments.

• All authentication events must be processed by PolicyApp. By using two separate topics, you can route sign-in and sign-out events to the same app (via subscriptions pointing to PolicyApp), ensuring both types are processed.
• Sign-outs must be processed as fast as possible. Isolating sign-out events on their own topic/subscription lets you scale and prioritize that path independently from sign-ins, reducing contention and latency.
• Decoupling the flows provides better control and RBAC granularity. You can apply different access controls and scaling policies per topic/subscription if needed.
• A single subscription with a subject filter (e.g., subjectBeginsWith) would still require handling both event types and wouldn’t offer the same isolation and independent scaling benefits as separate topics and subscriptions.

• Answer: C — 192.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor

• Why:

• Permanent table (E): Correct. A dropped permanent table can be restored with UNDROP TABLE during its Time Travel retention period. Permanent tables also have Fail-safe protection.
• Transient table: It can also generally be restored during its shorter Time Travel period, although it has no Fail-safe. Therefore, excluding it makes the question questionable.
• Temporary table: Usually cannot be recovered after it is dropped; its lifecycle is limited to the session.
• Materialized view (D): The answer key treats it as recoverable, but recovery behavior depends on the specific Snowflake object/version capabilities. It should not be confused with an ordinary view.

• Catalog Items are the basic units users can request from the Service Catalog.
• Order Guides are bundles that group related catalog items so a user can place multiple items in one order.
• Record Producers are catalog items that, when submitted, create a new record in a specified table (for example, creating a new Incident or a custom record).

• Why: After listing all resources, you need to assign who is responsible for each task. A RACI chart (Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed) documents these roles for every activity.

• What RACI means:

• Why the others aren’t suitable here:

• Quick example: Task "Create user authentication module" — Responsible: Developer, Accountable: Tech Lead, Consulted: Security Architect, Informed: PM.

• The correct answer is D: All of the above.

• Snowflake Web Interface (UI): You can create and manage Virtual Warehouses from the UI (resize, suspend/resume settings, etc.).
• SQL commands: You can create and alter warehouses with DDL like CREATE WAREHOUSE and ALTER WAREHOUSE.
• Data integration tools: ETL/ELT tools can create/manage warehouses by connecting to Snowflake and issuing the appropriate commands or using their config to specify a warehouse.

Why B works

• AWS KMS keys are Regional resources. A normal customer managed key in Region A cannot be used directly in Region B.
• A customer managed multi-Region KMS key (MRK) has related key replicas in both Regions. The replicas share key material and key ID, although each has a Regional ARN.
• With client-side encryption, the application encrypts the data before storing it in S3. Cross-Region replication then copies already-encrypted objects, so S3 does not need to decrypt and re-encrypt them with a different Regional key.

Why the other choices are weaker

• A and C: SSE-S3 uses Amazon-managed S3 keys, not the required customer managed KMS key.
• D: SSE-KMS can work only if the solution creates and configures the appropriate KMS key or multi-Region key replica in each Region. As written, it says to create a customer managed KMS key in each Region, which implies separate keys—not the same KMS key. Replication also requires additional KMS permissions and destination encryption configuration.

• The Balanced Scorecard translates an organization’s vision and strategy into a set of concrete objectives and metrics across four perspectives (financial, customer, internal processes, learning & growth). This framework explicitly links IT goals to business goals and provides a way to measure and monitor alignment over time.

• Enterprise architecture (EA): Great for governance, standards, and roadmaps to ensure IT assets support business needs, but it’s more about structure and alignment at design time rather than directly measuring ongoing alignment of goals.
• KPIs: Useful metrics, but they don’t by themselves provide a full framework to ensure IT goals are aligned with organizational strategy.
• Enterprise dashboard: A visualization tool for metrics; it helps report status but doesn’t inherently establish or assess alignment.

• VMs without NGT: Not clearly a migration blocker on its own; NGT (Nutanix Guest Tools) status isn’t the typical gating factor for live migration during maintenance.
• VMs marked as an Agent: Not a standard, widely-known migration blocker; agents aren’t the typical reason a VM can’t be migrated.
• Memory Overcommitted VMs: While memory pressure can affect placement, memory overcommitment isn’t a fundamental reason a VM would be labeled non-migratable during maintenance.
• VMs with attached Volume Groups: This is the strongest candidate. A Volume Group is a set of volumes bound to a VM; moving the VM would entail relocating and reattaching those volumes, which can complicate or block live migration during maintenance.

• I can’t view the images, so I can’t tell which table is labeled as A in your screenshot. But here’s how to decide:

• How to identify the fact table:

• How to identify the surrogate key in the Patient table:

• Relationship:

• The question asks why some tasks appear locked in the HR Guided Setup Module’s Task view.
• The options are:

• C) They require other tasks to be completed first. In guided setup flows, tasks are usually gated by prerequisites to ensure proper sequencing and data/configuration dependencies. You typically unlock a task only after the necessary preceding tasks are finished.

• A) Elevated roles can restrict access in some contexts, but guided setup tasks are commonly gated by prerequisites rather than solely by role.
• B) Deprecation isn’t the general pattern for “locked” tasks in the guided setup.
• D) A plugin activation could unlock certain features, but the common gating mechanism is task dependencies, not plugin state.

• The page shows the answer as D, but based on how HR Guided Setup usually works, the more accurate reason is typically C (prerequisites). If you’re studying, treat C as the conceptual answer and be aware the listed key may be incorrect. If you want, I can walk through each option in more detail.

• Automation handles repetitive tasks, and orchestration coordinates responses across tools (SIEM, SOAR, EDR, etc.).
• This allows the security team to process more events with the same number of people, improving throughput and response times.
• Analysts can focus on more complex tasks like investigation and threat hunting instead of manual triage.

• It increases complexity: automation can reduce complexity when well-implemented; complexity is not the main intended benefit.
• It removes technical debt: automation/OR focuses on current incident response efficiency, not primarily on architectural debt.
• It adds additional guard rails: governance is important but not the core value of automation/orchestration within a SIEM.

• Two instances: Free/Shared do not provide the production-level multi-instance hosting you need. Basic/Standard support more than one instance, with Standard specifically meeting the scale requirement.
• SSL support: SSL (custom domain TLS) isn’t available on the Free tier and isn’t a driver for cost on paid tiers—but you’ll need a paid tier to map a custom domain (miami.weyland.com) and use SSL.
• Storage: Your site needs 12 GB. Free/Shared have very limited storage; Basic tier storage is typically smaller than what you need, while Standard provides substantially more storage capacity.
• Cost: Among the tiers that meet all requirements (two instances, SSL, sufficient storage), Standard is the lowest-cost option that satisfies them.

• Authenticating websites with TLS/HTTPS
• Enabling certificate-based VPN authentication
• Signing or encrypting email
• Supporting device or user authentication

• VLAN tagging: Uses network-frame tags, such as 802.1Q; it does not rely on X.509 certificates.
• LDAP: May integrate with PKI in some environments, but X.509 certificates are not most commonly associated with LDAP itself.
• MFA: Certificates can be one authentication factor, but X.509 is fundamentally a PKI technology.

• a) True — To add a field to the form layout, drag the field from the Fields tab to the desired destination on the form. This adds to the form view only, without changing the table definition.
• b) True — To create a new field on the form’s table, drag a data type from the Field Types tab to the form and configure it. This creates a new column on the table and adds the field to the form view.
• c) True — To remove a field from the form layout, hover to enable the action buttons and select Delete. This removes the field from the form view but does not remove it from the table definition.
• d) False — You cannot add a section by dragging from the Field Types tab. Sections are added via the Add Section option (toolbar or right-click menu), not from the Field Types tab.

• In Microsoft Entra (Azure AD), admin roles can be scoped to either the entire directory (tenant) or to an Administrative Unit (AU). To assign a role at an AU scope, the user must be a member of that AU.

• Roles in question: Security Administrator and User Administrator can be scoped either to the Directory or to a specific AU.

• User1 is a member of AU1. Therefore, User1 can be assigned either at the AU scope (AU1) or at the Directory scope (global).

• User2 is not a member of AU1. Therefore, User2 cannot be assigned at the AU scope; the valid scope for User2 is only the Directory scope.

• User1: can be assigned at AU1 and at Directory scopes.
• User2: can be assigned only at the Directory scope.

• App Tag: a label that reflects the app’s enterprise readiness based on its Cloud Confidence Index (CCI) rating. It lets you quickly group apps (e.g., Poor, Average, Good) for policy decisions.
• App Score: a numeric value representing the CCI score. It provides a precise threshold you can use to enforce policies (e.g., block apps with Score below 50).

• You can create policies that block or restrict apps with a Poor App Tag or with an App Score under a chosen threshold.
• These two aspects let you filter cloud apps by CCI ratings during policy evaluation.

• CCL isn’t described as a real-time policy facet in this scenario.
• GDPR Readiness is a separate consideration and not the two CCI aspects used for real-time protection policy in this context.

• B: Intégrez des résultats de due diligence tels que les évaluations de risque client.

• C: Utilisez des correspondants en aval pour enquêter et signaler les activités suspectes.

1. Remote access to a Windows PC
2. Full chat and optional game-console functions

• Windows Remote Desktop (RDP) uses TCP 3389. The router needs a port-forwarding rule that sends incoming traffic on that port to the Windows PC’s internal IP address.
• The game console should connect through the wireless AP. Using WPA2-PSK provides the required wireless security while allowing normal online, chat, and optional services.
• The firewall should separate the internal network from the screened subnet. Its screened-subnet-side address is shown as 10.100.0.1.
• Devices must be placed in the correct network locations: the PC behind the router, the console on the wireless AP, and the firewall between the appropriate network segments.

• The correct answer is Mass Transfer Tool.

• The Mass Transfer Records tool is Salesforce’s built-in way to reassign ownership of existing records in bulk. In this scenario, you need to transfer ownership of the departed rep’s accounts and opportunities to a new rep while keeping the team structure intact.

• Go to Setup > Data Management > Mass Transfer Records.
• Choose the object: Accounts (and then Opportunities, if needed).
• Set “Transfer From” (the leaving rep) and “Transfer To” (the new rep).
• Decide whether to transfer related records as well (e.g., opportunities tied to accounts) and proceed.
• Review and confirm.

• Data Loader / Data Import Wizard are for bulk import/export, not bulk reassigning ownership.
• Dataloader.io is a third-party tool; the built-in Mass Transfer tool is the standard Salesforce method for this task.

• Correct choices: A and D.

• Why not B, C, or E?

• Why: ADS is designed to collect information about on-premises environments to plan migrations. It inventories details like hostname, IP address, MAC address, OS, hardware, and installed software, plus dependency mappings. This data helps you understand your current environment before moving to AWS.

• How it differs from the other options:

• Practical use: Install the ADS agent on on-prem hosts to collect data, then view the inventory in Migration Hub to inform migration planning and sequencing.