Free 300-825 Exam Braindumps (page: 1)

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Which Expressway-E service or protocol is required for external web app participants to join a Cisco Meeting Server version 3.0 conference as guests?

  1. XMPP
  2. TURN
  3. SIP
  4. H.323

Answer(s): B



Refer to the exhibit.


An administrator troubleshoots an issue with Cisco Meeting Server. Endpoints that call from the remote site cannot connect, but endpoints that call from headquarters can connect. What should the administrator do to resolve this issue?

  1. Add a route for 192.168.10.0/24 to interface b.
  2. Set interface b as the default interface.
  3. Remove the route for 192.168.0.0/16 from interface b.
  4. Enable DHCP on interface a but not on interface b.

Answer(s): A



An engineer configures Cisco Meeting Server as a conference resource for Cisco UCM. Cisco UCM has a secure SIP trunk to Cisco Meeting Server, but the server does not register to Cisco UCM. Which configuration resolves this issue?

  1. Ensure that the SIP trunk from Cisco UCM to Cisco Meeting Server is a secure trunk using port 5061.
  2. Add Cisco Meeting Server to the Cisco UCM SIP trunk with an IP address and not an FQDN.
  3. Set the Web Admin port on the Conference Bridge settings to match Cisco Meeting Server.
  4. Configure an MRGL that contains Cisco Meeting Server to be associated with device pools.

Answer(s): D


Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/conferencing/meeting-server/213820-configure-cisco-meeting-server-and-cucm.html



Refer to the exhibit.

Content-Type: application/sdp Content-Length: 4938
v=0
o=Acano 0 0 IN IP4 10.0.101.120
s=-
c=IN IP4 10.0.101.120
b=CT:16 t=0 0
m=audio 50262 RTP/AVP 108 107 109 110 9 99 111 100 104 103 0 8 15 102 18 13 118 101
a=crypto:1 AEAD_AES_128_GCM ************************************************|2^48
a=crypto:2 AEAD_AES_256_GCM ********************************************************************|2^48 a=crypto:3 AES_CM_128_HMAC_SHA1_80 *******************************************************|2^48 a=crypto:4 AES_CM_128_HMAC_SHA1_32 *******************************************************|2^48
<details omitted>
m=video 50264 RTP/AVP 97 116 114 96 34 31 100 121 b=TIAS:16000
a=crypto:1 AEAD_AES_128_GCM ************************************************|2^48
a=crypto:2 AEAD_AES_256_GCM ********************************************************************|2^48 a=crypto:3 AES_CM_128_HMAC_sha1_80 *******************************************************|2^48 a=crypto:4 AES_CM_128_HMAC_sha1_32 *******************************************************|2^48 a=content:main a=sendrecv
a=sprop-source:1 count=2;policies=cs:1 a=sprop-simul:1 1 * a=rtcp-fb:* nack pli a=rtcp-fb:* ccm fir a=rtcp-fb:* ccm cisco-scr
a=extmap:1 http://protocols.cisco.com/virtualid a=extmap:2 http://protocols.cisco.com/framemarking a=rtpmap:97 H264/90000 a=fmtp:97 profile-level-id=42800a;max-mpbs=489600;max-fs=8160;max-cpb=4000;max- dpd=4752;max-fps=6000

Users report that they do not see a high-quality picture on the high-definition endpoints when they call into Cisco Meeting Server. An engineer must extract the SDP that is offered by Cisco Meeting Server from the SIP traces to troubleshoot. What is the cause of this issue?

  1. Cisco Meeting Server is not configured for H.265 to support high-definition video calling.
  2. The AES ciphers are not compatible with high-definition video calling.
  3. The Content-Length value in the SDP does not support high-definition video calling.
  4. The SIP call bandwidth is not at a value that supports high-definition video calling.

Answer(s): D



Page 1 of 15



Post your Comments and Discuss Cisco® 300-825 exam with other Community members:

khensani 11/3/2023 10:50:01 AM
content is good
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kent 11/3/2023 10:45:03 AM
relevant questions
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kent 11/3/2023 10:30:57 AM
helpful questions
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Ram 11/3/2023 5:10:51 AM
Good content
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Erineo 11/2/2023 6:32:25 PM
Q 28 is C&D explained in https://portal.nutanix.com/page/documents/kbs/details?targetId=kA00e000000LKMKCA4
Anonymous
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Erineo 11/2/2023 5:34:46 PM
Q14 is B&C To reduce you will switch off mail for every single alert and you will switch on daily digest to get a mail once per day, you might even skip the empty digest mail but I see this as a part of the daily digest adjustment
Anonymous
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Erineo 11/2/2023 4:25:06 PM
Q80, correct answer is A Nutanix AHV assigns an IP address from the address pool when it creates a managed VM NIC; the address releases back to the pool when the VM NIC or VM is deleted. With a managed network, AHV intercepts DHCP requests from guest VMs and bypasses traditional network-based DHCP servers. AHV uses the last network IP address in the assigned network for the managed network DHCP server unless you select Override DHCP server when you create the network.
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YachtMaster 11/2/2023 10:23:52 AM
This is a good resource couple of answers are wrong, but if you use this in combination with your other study sources, You'll pass!
UNITED STATES
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Srinanda 11/2/2023 9:22:57 AM
Q41: correct answer Send Email. Apex verified.
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Srinanda 11/2/2023 9:19:47 AM
Q40: correct answers 2 pane and 3 pane mode . Verified from apex.
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Dass 11/2/2023 7:43:20 AM
Question no 22: correct answers: BC, 1 per session 1 per page 1 per component Always
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Useful information
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Sibghat 11/1/2023 4:54:16 PM
are those valid anyone pass the exam?
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Robert Lucio 11/1/2023 4:49:35 PM
are those valid?
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beryl 11/1/2023 10:12:14 AM
good choices and explanation given
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Asad Khan 11/1/2023 3:10:24 AM
Answer 16 should be B Your organizational policies require you to use virtual machines directly
Anonymous
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Asad Khan 11/1/2023 2:44:01 AM
Answer 10 should be A because only a new project will be created & the organization is the same.
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Prince 10/31/2023 9:09:04 PM
Is it possible to clear the exam if we focus on only these 156 questions instead of 623 questions? Kindly help!
Anonymous
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Emmanuel Imasuen 10/31/2023 3:34:17 PM
Q54 requires 2 answers. Only 1 is provided in the solution.
UNITED KINGDOM
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Emmanuel Imasuen 10/31/2023 3:25:41 PM
There is an error in Q51. It looks like option A is part of the question. As is, this is not currently a question. It is a statement. The answer also needs re-visiting.
UNITED KINGDOM
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Lucky 10/31/2023 2:01:15 PM
Does anyone who attended exam CSA 8.8, can confirm these questions are really coming ? or these are just for practicing?
HONG KONG
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Emmanuel Imasuen 10/31/2023 1:54:01 PM
I am not sure why the answer to question 40 requires development to be carried out in a developer edition and then deployed with an unmanaged package. How does this address the issue raised by management? Why is the configuration not in a sandbox?
UNITED KINGDOM
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Ramparsad 10/31/2023 1:53:43 PM
Great content and very helpful. Thank you for providing this free study dumps. I managed to pass one of my exams with the help of your exam dumps. I am preparing for my CSM-001 now.
INDIA
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Emmanuel Imasuen 10/31/2023 12:31:44 PM
Question 20 requires 3 answers but the solution only provides 2.
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hello 10/31/2023 12:07:53 PM
good content
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Jithesh 10/31/2023 11:40:57 AM
Is it possible to clear the exam if we focus on only these 156 questions instead of 623 questions? Kindly help!
Anonymous
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ibrahim 10/31/2023 9:57:43 AM
Q: 55 Ownership of any objects owned by the dropped role is transferred to the role that executes the DROP ROLE command. To transfer ownership of each of these objects to a different role, use GRANT OWNERSHIP … COPY CURRENT GRANTS.
TURKEY
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ibrahim 10/31/2023 9:56:29 AM
Ownership of any objects owned by the dropped role is transferred to the role that executes the DROP ROLE command. To transfer ownership of each of these objects to a different role, use GRANT OWNERSHIP … COPY CURRENT GRANTS. https://docs.snowflake.com/en/sql-reference/sql/drop-role
TURKEY
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Bharat Kumar Saraf 10/31/2023 4:59:27 AM
Answer to Q 8 should be B. DPIA is required if the processing is likely to pose a high risk to the rights and freedoms of data subjects. Ref Article 35. Consent can be the basis of data processing. However, a valid consent does not relieve the entity from performing a DPIA where mandated by Article 35.
HONG KONG
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Bharat Kumar Saraf 10/31/2023 4:51:39 AM
Answer to Q10 should be A. GDPR doesnot requires maintenance of records of processing activities under Article 30. It doesnot require notification of processing activities to SA. Answer to Q11 should be B. Appointment of DPO is not mandatory in all cases under GDPR. Article 37 lists down conditions for appointment of DPO.
HONG KONG
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Bharat Kumar Saraf 10/31/2023 4:45:57 AM
Answer to q 19 should be C. Answer to q 20 should be D.
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Bharat Kumar Saraf 10/31/2023 4:36:32 AM
Some of the answers are incorrect. Need to be reviewed.
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