CompTIA CAS-004 Exam Prep
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) CAS-004 (Page 56 )

• The vulnerability scan identifies a vulnerability.
• The administrator verifies that the vulnerability is not present.
• Therefore, the scan produced a false positive.

• True positive: A vulnerability is reported and genuinely exists.
• False negative: A vulnerability exists, but the scan fails to detect it.
• True negative: No vulnerability exists, and the scan correctly reports no issue.

• Elasticity: Automatically increases or decreases resources based on demand.
• Scalability: The ability to increase capacity to handle more workload.
• Low latency: Minimizes network response time; it does not provide protection from failures.

• B: Extending credit to customers increases receivables, so more cash is tied up in working capital.
• C: Replacing obsolete inventory does not reduce the overall inventory investment; it simply changes its composition.
• D: Paying suppliers earlier reduces payables. This uses cash and therefore increases the funds tied up in working capital.

• A is incorrect: Flow Debugger is for debugging Salesforce Flows, not Trust Layer masking.
• B is incomplete/misleading: Requesting audit data may be part of reviewing the results, but collection and storage must first be enabled.
• C is correct: It describes the initial validation step.

• A user connects with their Google account.
• Google associates the user’s SSH key with that identity.
• IAM roles determine whether they can log in.
• Access can be tied to a specific employee for auditing.
• Removing the IAM role removes their login access.

• compute.osLogin: regular OS login access
• compute.osAdminLogin: OS login with administrative privileges, typically including sudo

text 
enable-oslogin=TRUE

1. Yes — One account can manage multiple subscriptions

1. No — You cannot merge two subscriptions into one

1. Yes — A resource belongs to only one subscription

• B — AWS DataSync: Transfers data between storage systems. It is not a marketplace or integration service for third-party datasets.
• C — Kinesis Data Streams and CodeCommit: CodeCommit stores source code, not third-party analytical datasets. Kinesis is for streaming data, not retrieving datasets from repositories.
• D — Kinesis Data Streams and ECR: Amazon ECR stores container images, not third-party datasets.

• Training data for potential bias before model training
• Trained models for bias in predictions
• Model features to help explain how they influence predictions

• A: RAG workflows are typically built using services such as Amazon Bedrock, knowledge bases, and data sources.
• B: Monitoring model quality in production is primarily associated with SageMaker Model Monitor.
• C: Documenting model details is handled by capabilities such as SageMaker Model Cards.

• Help the team identify the root causes of delays.
• Empower the team to improve its workflow and practices.
• Facilitate removal of impediments.
• Avoid directing the team toward a solution without its involvement.
• Protect quality and sustainable delivery rather than simply accelerating everything.

• A: An impediment log may help, but merely recording problems does not empower the team to solve them.
• B: Directing the team to solutions conflicts with self-management.
• C: Adding impediments to the product backlog may incorrectly treat internal obstacles as product features and delays their resolution.

• Static IP address: Not needed if the workstation already has network connectivity.
• Subnet mask: Incorrect subnetting would usually prevent local communication, including pinging the server.
• Default gateway: Primarily affects communication outside the local network; it does not normally prevent finding an internal domain controller.

• Customers may boycott V’s products.
• Supermarket customers may stop buying from V.
• Investors may view V as having higher legal, ethical and reputational risk.
• V could face fines, lawsuits, contract losses and higher costs.
• Expected future profits may fall.

• Sales revenue is affected because internal sales are recorded at the transfer price.
• Operating profit is affected because revenue changes while costs may remain unchanged.
• Return on investment (ROI) is affected because ROI depends on operating profit and the division’s investment.
• Cost of components purchased is not affected by the transfer price. These are costs incurred when buying components from external suppliers, not the internal price charged for the division’s output.

• The requirement is to obtain an assessment of the Azure environment’s design.
• The proposed solution is the Premier support plan.
• Premier can provide this type of guidance, but it is a higher-tier, more expensive option.
• The question specifically says to keep costs to a minimum. A lower tier—typically Professional Direct in the support-plan model used by this question—provides architectural/design guidance.

• TLS passthrough: A TCP listener does not decrypt traffic. The client establishes TLS directly with the backend, so the backend can perform mutual TLS (mTLS) authentication.
• gRPC over TCP: gRPC commonly uses HTTP/2 over TLS, and an NLB can forward the underlying TCP connections without modifying them.
• Scalability: Registering the Pods as IP targets allows Kubernetes to add or remove Pods as the Horizontal Pod Autoscaler changes the workload. The AWS Load Balancer Controller updates the target registrations.
• Port 443: The NLB can forward TCP traffic on port 443 without terminating TLS.

• An ALB HTTPS listener terminates TLS at the load balancer, violating the requirement that traffic must not be decrypted before reaching the backend.
• Targeting the EKS node group's Auto Scaling group does not directly track dynamically scaling Pods.
• An NLB TLS listener also terminates TLS at the NLB, preventing end-to-end mTLS between the client and backend.

• The backup file is complete and uncorrupted.
• The required data can actually be recovered.
• The recovery process and documentation work as expected.
• Recovery objectives, such as acceptable downtime, can be met.

• Backup logs may show that a job completed, but not that the backup is usable.
• File size does not prove the contents are valid.
• Email notifications may confirm process completion, not recoverability.
• Appointing a DBA does not itself validate backups.

• Controlar o fluxo de dados entre S3 e SageMaker;
• Aplicar regras de segurança por meio da VPC;
• Reduzir a exposição dos dados;
• Permitir acesso privado ao bucket do S3.

• Amazon Inspector: avalia vulnerabilidades, mas não gerencia o fluxo de dados.
• Amazon Macie: ajuda a descobrir e proteger dados sensíveis no S3, mas não cria a conexão com o SageMaker.
• S3 Glacier Deep Archive: é uma classe de armazenamento para arquivamento, não uma solução de conectividade.

• A: It allows for branching and merging...

• C: It allows multiple engineers to work against the same code and configuration files and manage differences and conflicts.

• B: Build automation and infrastructure provisioning are handled by CI/CD and automation tools, not by version control alone.
• D: User Stories and backlogs are managed by project-management tools.
• E: Version control stores and tracks code, but it does not itself ensure that developers write effective unit tests.

• Menerjemahkan soal ke bahasa Indonesia.
• Menyebutkan jawaban yang benar.
• Menjelaskan alasan jawaban tersebut.
• Memberi tahu jika kunci jawaban yang tersedia tampaknya keliru.
• Menjelaskan istilah teknis penting dalam soal.

• Assign endpoints to a group based on the result of one policy.
• Use that group as the scope of another policy.
• This effectively passes the endpoints from one policy’s processing flow to another.

• Plenum: Describes a fire-resistant cable jacket rating, not a transmission medium or speed.
• Ethernet: Describes a networking technology; Ethernet can use copper or fiber, so the term alone does not identify the fastest cable type.
• DAC (Direct Attach Copper): Uses copper and is typically intended for short-distance, high-speed connections in data centers.

1. Start with the number of devices: 260 usable addresses.
2. Use the formula:

1. Test the host-bit values:

1. IPv4 has 32 total bits:

• /24: 254 usable — too small
• /23: 510 usable — sufficient
• /22: 1,022 usable — more waste
• /21: 2,046 usable — even more waste

• Third-party attestation: Provides independent confirmation, often for formal compliance reporting, but is not usually performed frequently.
• Penetration testing: Attempts to exploit vulnerabilities; it focuses on technical security, not overall compliance procedures.
• Vulnerability scans: Identify known technical weaknesses in systems, but do not evaluate whether policies and processes meet compliance requirements.

• Which host first communicated with the suspected malicious source
• Whether that host initiated suspicious traffic or merely received it
• Which other hosts show evidence of infection, such as connections from the originating host
• Which hosts have no related suspicious activity and are therefore clean

• An outbound connection to a suspicious external address
• A downloaded or executed malicious file
• Later lateral connections from that host to other internal systems
• Firewall logs showing the direction and timing of the traffic

• Espionage: Stealing confidential information, often for a competitor or foreign entity.
• Data exfiltration: Unauthorized removal or transfer of data.
• Nation-state attack: A cyberattack sponsored or conducted by a government.
• Shadow IT: Unapproved technology or services used outside IT oversight.

• CPU: Number of virtual CPUs and, where applicable, CPU reservations.
• Memory: Amount of memory and memory reservations.

• Network interface: Usually configured through the VM or workload networking configuration.
• PCI devices: Specialized hardware and not a standard VM Class resource in this context.
• Storage: Typically selected through storage policies or the VM’s storage configuration.

• 50% memory utilization baseline: The environment can be provisioned with excess capacity, leaving room for growth and workload spikes.
• Storage scalability: Cloud storage can generally be expanded as needed without redesigning the physical platform.
• Single circuit failure resilience: A properly designed IaaS provider uses redundant power circuits and infrastructure, so failure of one circuit should not take the platform offline.

• A — Dual PDUs: Helps with power redundancy but does not provide storage scalability.
• C — Network load balancing: Provides network-path resilience, not memory or storage scalability, and does not address a power-circuit failure.
• D — Multiple NAS devices: May improve storage capacity, but does not inherently provide power resilience or the required compute-capacity baseline.

• A — Tables
• B — Named file formats
• C — Schemas
• E — Databases

Why these are correct

• Tables: Can be cloned using CREATE TABLE ... CLONE. The clone initially uses zero-copy cloning, so storage is shared until changes are made.
• Named file formats: Can be cloned as database objects, preserving the file-format definition.
• Schemas: A schema and its eligible objects can be cloned.
• Databases: A database and its eligible schemas and objects can be cloned.

Why the others are incorrect

• Shares: A share is an account-level data-sharing object, not a normal cloneable database object.
• Users: Users are security principals and cannot be cloned with CLONE.

• Relationship cardinality:

• Filter direction:

• Active versus inactive relationships: only active relationships automatically propagate filters.
• Blank or unmatched values: a fact-table value without a matching dimension row can create the model’s blank/unknown member.
• Uniqueness: the “one” side must contain unique values; duplicate keys generally belong on the “many” side.

Manager role

DAX 
Country[Manager] = USERPRINCIPALNAME()

• Sales
• Human Resources

CFO role

• See sales for all countries
• See no Human Resources data

• Do not restrict the Country table or Sales table.
• Apply a filter to Human Resources that always returns false, such as:

DAX 
FALSE()

• Standardize which services users can deploy
• Apply governance and access controls
• Manage approved product versions
• Give users self-service access to authorized resources

• AWS Control Tower: Sets up and governs a multi-account AWS environment.
• AWS Cloud Map: Provides service discovery for applications.
• AWS Clean Rooms: Enables privacy-preserving collaboration on data analysis.

• A — VARIANT "null" values are not the same as SQL NULL values: True

• B — Frequent, single-row DMLs: False

• C — Validate data before loading into the target table: True

• D — Use staging tables to manage MERGE statements: True

• Authentication: Verifies who the user is.
• Authorization: Determines what the authenticated user is allowed to access.
• Accounting: Records login activity and resource usage.

• CIA: Confidentiality, integrity, and availability—the core security objectives.
• ACL: Access Control List; rules that permit or deny traffic or access.
• PEM: A format and standard commonly associated with encoded certificates and keys.

1. x = -100
2. -100 < x < 100
3. 100 = x < 1000
4. x = 1000

• -500 ? class 1
• 0 ? class 2
• 100 ? class 3
• 1000 ? class 4

• Suporta domínios personalizados.
• Oferece 50 GB de armazenamento — suficiente para os 10 GB de cada aplicação.
• Usa instâncias de computação dedicadas.
• Inclui balanceamento de carga entre instâncias.
• É o plano mais econômico entre as opções que atendem a todos esses requisitos.

• Sets a high initial price for a new product.
• Targets customers willing to pay more, often called early adopters.
• Gradually reduces the price to attract more price-sensitive customers as the product becomes less novel and competition increases.

• Penetration pricing: starts with a low price to gain market share quickly.
• Premium pricing: maintains a high price to communicate superior quality or status; it does not necessarily involve later price reductions.
• Loss leader pricing: sells one product at a very low price, sometimes below cost, to attract customers who may buy other products.

• Unsafe images: Requires image/content moderation before the image is processed.
• Hidden instructions embedded in images: These are indirect prompt injections contained in untrusted image content or extracted text, not necessarily in the user’s typed prompt.

Correct reasoning

• Create storage5 as a General-purpose v2 (StorageV2) account.
• Configure Blob object replication from storage5 to an existing compatible storage account.
• The destination must support object replication—typically another StorageV2 or premium block blob account.
• Blob versioning must be enabled on both accounts.
• Blob change feed must be enabled on the source account.
• The accounts must meet Azure’s object-replication requirements, including being in supported regions and having compatible configuration.

• Disabling a compromised account
• Blocking a malicious IP address
• Isolating an endpoint
• Creating or escalating an incident ticket

• Virus signatures: Primarily associated with antivirus or endpoint protection.
• Security agent deployment: Usually handled by endpoint-management or security-agent platforms.
• Vulnerability scanning: Typically performed by vulnerability-management tools.

• Reduce the training data: Usually makes overfitting worse.
• Add hyperparameters: Hyperparameters already control training; simply adding them does not solve the problem. Proper tuning could help, but that is not what the option states.
• Increase training time: More training can worsen overfitting if the model is already memorizing the training data.

• Partners first log in to the corporate portal, which uses the shared SAML Identity Provider.
• When they select a Salesforce link, the IdP can send a SAML assertion directly to Salesforce.
• Salesforce validates the assertion and grants access to the Partner Community without requiring another login. This is IdP-initiated SSO because authentication begins outside Salesforce.

• SP-initiated SSO starts when Salesforce sends an authentication request to the IdP. That would be appropriate if users began by visiting Salesforce.
• The Web Server and User Agent OAuth flows are for OAuth authorization, not browser-based SAML federation between an IdP and Salesforce.

• Layer 1: Check cables, power, and link lights.
• Layer 2: Check switching, VLANs, and MAC learning.
• Layer 3: Check IP addressing, routing, and gateways.
• Higher layers: Check services, applications, and user settings.

• Create a plan of action: Decide how to implement the fix.
• Implement the solution: Apply the selected fix.
• Verify functionality: Confirm the problem is resolved and systems work normally.

• Code signing: Verifies the software’s authenticity and integrity; it does not hide the source code or prevent reverse engineering.
• Tokenization: Replaces sensitive data with tokens, mainly for protecting data such as payment information—not software logic.
• Blockchain: Provides a tamper-resistant record of transactions or data; it does not protect compiled code from analysis.

• Use the grant-date fair value: $30
• Do not remeasure to the year-end value of $45
• Update the estimate of employees expected to vest

• Dr Share-based payment expense $450,000
• Cr Equity/share option reserve $450,000

• B: Não é preciso implantar o modelo em um endpoint do Amazon SageMaker, pois o Bedrock já oferece a infraestrutura de inferência.
• C: O SageMaker Model Registry é usado para gerenciar modelos no SageMaker, não é requisito para modelos customizados no Bedrock.
• D: Não existe uma etapa geral de “conceder acesso” ao modelo customizado como requisito principal de uso. O ponto essencial é adquirir o Provisioned Throughput.

• O File Gateway fornece uma interface de compartilhamento de arquivos usando protocolos como SMB ou NFS.
• Os usuários continuam acessando os arquivos localmente, aproveitando a baixa latência e o cache local.
• Os dados são armazenados de forma durável no Amazon S3, enquanto os arquivos acessados com frequência permanecem em cache no ambiente local.
• Isso amplia a capacidade de armazenamento sem exigir a substituição completa da infraestrutura existente.

• A: Montar buckets S3 diretamente não oferece uma experiência de compartilhamento de arquivos local tão adequada.
• C: Amazon WorkSpaces fornece desktops virtuais, não é uma solução principal de armazenamento compartilhado.
• D: Um volume EBS pertence a uma instância EC2 e não deve ser compartilhado diretamente entre vários usuários como um sistema de arquivos comum.

• Vulnerability scanner: Finds known technical weaknesses in systems or applications, but does not provide complete supply-chain visibility.
• Penetration test: Simulates attacks against defined targets; it is narrower than a full supply-chain analysis.
• SCAP: A set of standards and protocols for automated security configuration and vulnerability assessment, not a comprehensive supply-chain mapping tool.

• # Development
• # Testing
• # Production

• Separate endpoints: relate to compute or connectivity, not dashboard labels.
• Separate queries: retrieve or transform data but do not designate visual sections.
• Direct text written into the dashboard in editing mode: dashboards use text boxes, typically with Markdown formatting, rather than arbitrary text placed directly on the canvas.