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Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Questions 776–780 (page: 157)

Updated On: 10-Feb-2026

Implementing which of the following will BEST help ensure that systems comply with an established baseline before deployment?

  1. Vulnerability scanning
  2. Continuous monitoring and alerting
  3. Configuration management
  4. Access controls and active logging

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Configuration management is a process that establishes and maintains the consistency and integrity of the IT systems and applications throughout their lifecycle. Configuration management involves identifying, documenting, controlling, and auditing the configuration items, such as hardware, software, data, or services, that comprise the IT systems and applications. Configuration management also involves establishing and enforcing the configuration baselines, which are the approved and authorized states of the configuration items. Implementing configuration management will best help ensure that systems comply with an established baseline before deployment, as it will enable the enterprise to verify that the systems meet the specified requirements, standards, and policies, and to detect and correct any deviations or discrepancies. The other options are not as effective as configuration management, as they involve different aspects or outcomes of the IT systems and applications:
Vulnerability scanning is a process that identifies and analyzes the weaknesses or gaps in the IT systems and applications that could be exploited by threats. Vulnerability scanning helps to assessthe security and compliance of the systems, but it does not ensure that the systems comply with an established baseline before deployment, as it may not cover all the aspects or components of the systems, or may not reflect the latest changes or updates of the systems. Continuous monitoring and alerting is a process that tracks and reports the performance and status of the IT systems and applications on an ongoing basis. Continuous monitoring and alerting helps to identify and respond to any issues or incidents that affect the availability, integrity, or confidentiality of the systems, but it does not ensure that the systems comply with an established baseline before deployment, as it may not prevent or detect the unauthorized or unintended changes or modifications of the systems, or may not provide sufficient information or evidence to verify the compliance of the systems. Access controls and active logging are processes that restrict and record the access and activities of the users or entities on the IT systems and applications. Access controls and active logging help to protect and audit the IT systems and applications, but they do not ensure that the systems comply with an established baseline before deployment, as they may not address the configuration or quality issues of the systems, or may not be consistent or comprehensive across the systems. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1.1, pp. 156-157.



The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vendor risk management program is the percentage of:

  1. vendors providing risk assessments on time.
  2. vendor contracts reviewed in the past year.
  3. vendor risk mitigation action items completed on time.
  4. vendorsthat have reported control-related incidents.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

According to the CRISC Review Manual1, vendor risk mitigation action items are the specific tasks and activities that are assigned to the vendors or the organization to address the identified risks and implementthe risk responses. The percentage of vendor risk mitigation action items completed on time is the best key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vendor risk management program, as it helps to evaluate the timeliness and quality of the vendor performance, the alignment of the vendor activities with the organization's risk appetite and objectives, and the achievement of the expected outcomes and benefits of the risk responses. The percentage of vendor risk mitigation action items completed on time also helps to identify andresolve any issues or gaps in the vendor risk management process, and to improve the vendor relationship and communication. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 230.



Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's MOST important action upon learning that an IT control has failed?

  1. Implement a replacement control.
  2. Adjust residual risk rating.
  3. Escalate to senior management.
  4. Reviewcompensating controls.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Upon discovering that an IT control has failed, the risk practitioner's most important action is to review compensating controls. This involves assessing whether other existing controls can mitigate the risk associated with the failed control. Evaluating compensating controls helps determine the immediate impact of the control failure and guides decisions on necessary remediation steps.


Reference:

ISACA CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Reporting, Section: Control Monitoring and Reporting.



A risk practitioner has identified that the agreed recovery time objective (RTO) with a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is longer than the business expectation.
Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

  1. Collaborate with the risk owner to determine the risk response plan.
  2. Document the gap in the risk register and report to senior management.
  3. Include a right to audit clause in the service provider contract.
  4. Advise the risk owner to accept the risk.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The best course of action for the risk practitioner who has identified that the agreed RTO with a SaaS provider is longer than the business expectation is to document the gap in the risk register and report to senior management. The risk register is the document that records the details of all identified risks, including their sources, causes, impacts, likelihood, and responses. The risk register should be updated regularly to reflect any changes in the risk environment or the risk status. Reporting to senior management is also important, because senior management is the highest level of authority and responsibility in the organization, and they are responsible for setting the strategic direction, objectives, and risk appetite of the organization. Senior management should also oversee the risk management process, and ensure that the risks are aligned with the organization's goals and values. By documenting the gap in the risk register and reporting to senior management, the risk practitioner can communicate the issue clearly and effectively, and seek guidance and support for resolving the problem. Collaborating with the risk owner, including a right to audit clause, or advising the risk owner to accept the risk are not the best courses of action, because they may not be feasible, effective, or desirable in some situations, or they may require senior management approval or involvement. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 4-13.



Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to verify when evaluating the effectiveness of an organization's existing controls?

  1. Senior management has approved the control design.
  2. Inherent risk has been reduced from original levels.
  3. Residual risk remains within acceptable levels.
  4. Costs for control maintenance are reasonable.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of controls. It is important for a risk practitioner to verify that the residual risk is within the acceptable levels defined by the enterprise's risk appetite and tolerance. This ensures that the controls are effective in reducing the risk exposure to an acceptable level and align with the enterprise's objectives and strategy. References = CRISC Review Manual 27th Edition, page 131. Most Asked

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