ISC2 ISSAP Exam Actual Questions
ISC2 Information Systems Security Architecture Professional Exam (Page 19 )

• It is a sequence of distinct phases that flow one after another (requirements ? design ? implementation ? verification ? maintenance).
• Requirements are defined up front and changes are costly; the project often requires formal sign-off before moving to the next phase.
• It emphasizes heavy documentation and minimal iteration after a phase is completed.

• B. Enable column profile — This turns on column profiling, which computes statistics like min and max for each column.
• C. Show column profile in details pane — This ensures the per-column profile is visible in the details pane.
• E. Enable details pane — This makes the details pane available so you can view the column profile there.

• A. Show column value distribution may help with distribution but isn’t specifically about min/max.
• D. Show column quality details shows data quality (valid/null counts), not min/max.

• Amazon Cognito is designed for customer-facing apps to handle user sign-up, sign-in, and access control, and it can federate identities from social providers (Facebook, Google, etc.) or enterprise IdPs via SAML/OpenID Connect.
• You can configure a Cognito User Pool and connect social identity providers, then use tokens (JWT) to authorize backend API calls.

• AWS Directory Service is for connecting your AWS apps to an existing directory (like Active Directory) for enterprise users, not social login for customer apps.
• AWS IAM is for managing access to AWS resources, not end-user authentication for your website.
• AWS IAM Identity Center (AWS SSO) provides SSO for AWS accounts and enterprise apps, not typical social logins for consumer-facing websites.

• Event | search "error"
• Event | where EventType == "error"
• search in (Event) "error"

• What the scenario tests: How monitoring paths on a Universal Forwarder (UF) behave when you deploy an app via the Deployment Server.
• How monitoring is configured: Log paths to monitor are defined in inputs.conf (within apps/local on the UF). Splunk on the UF merges inputs from all apps and local config.
• Key point: Deploying a new app that adds a monitor for a log file does not typically remove existing monitors. The UF will continue monitoring any previously configured paths and will add the new ones from the deployed app.

• Correct answer: C) /var/log/maillog and /var/log/messages.

• Admin access to the deployment pipeline (B) – lets the developers use the pipeline and deploy content.
• Contributor access to the Development and Test workspaces (E) – required to deploy items into those workspaces.
• Viewer access to the Production workspace (D) – lets them view Production content without allowing deployment or modification.

• Contributor access to Production (F), because that could allow changes or deployment there.
• Viewer access to Development/Test (C), because Viewer is insufficient for deployment.
• Build permission to Production semantic models (A), because building reports on a semantic model is not required merely to view Production items.

• Approval publish: Request approval from a manager of the knowledge base before moving the article into the publish state.
• Instant Publish: Immediately publishes a draft article without requiring an approval.
• Instant Retire: Immediately retires a published article without requiring an approval.
• Retire Knowledge: Moves a knowledge article to the retired state.

• These are the base knowledge workflows that control how articles move between states (Draft, Published, Retired) and whether approvals are required.
• The other options describe different lifecycle actions, but these four cover the standard publish/retire workflows in ServiceNow.

• What wipe does: A factory reset that erases all data, apps, and settings and returns the device to the OOBE. It removes the device from management and resets identity.
• Why not for this scenario: The goal is to repurpose the same device to a new user with Autopilot. Autopilot Reset keeps the device’s Azure AD/Intune identity and re-provisions the device for the next user without a full wipe.
• What Autopilot Reset does: Removes user data and apps but preserves device identity and management connection, then reapplies the Autopilot provisioning for the next user.
• When you’d use wipe instead: If you’re selling or permanently discarding the device, or you truly want to scrub all traces and start fresh without re-enrolling.

• Storage requirement: 10 apps × 10 GB each = 100 GB total. Basic’s storage quota is insufficient to host 100 GB in one plan, whereas Standard provides enough storage capacity for multiple apps.

• Dedicated compute: The plan must use dedicated compute instances; Free/Shared do not meet this, while Basic, Standard, and higher do.

• Load balancing: The plan must include load balancing between instances. Standard includes built-in load balancing across app instances; Basic may not meet this requirement.

• Costs: Among the plans that satisfy storage, dedicated compute, and load balancing, Standard is the lowest-cost option.

• The answer: Question 51: C — Request trigger.

• To invoke a Logic App from an external service (here, the Azure Application Insights availability test) you need a trigger that starts on an incoming HTTP request. In Logic Apps, this is the trigger that exposes an HTTP endpoint — typically shown as "When a HTTP request is received" and referred to as the Request trigger.
• The other options aren’t appropriate:

• Create a Logic App with the Request trigger to generate a URL.
• Configure Application Insights to post the degraded-availability payload to that URL.
• Add actions (e.g., send email, follow-up) in the Logic App to notify the customer services team.

• Correct answer: D (Special category data)

• Why:

• Quick notes:

• Why this is correct: In Azure Virtual Desktop, user access to a host pool is controlled through App Groups. The default app group for a host pool publishes the full desktop, so adding members to that app group grants them sign-in and access to the desktop (and any RemoteApps in that group). This is the standard way to give users access to AVD resources.

• Why the other options are not correct:

• Practical steps (high level):

• What each role allows at the storage account scope:

• Why someone might say it’s not correct in this question:

• Practical takeaway:

• Correct choices: A and D.

• Why not B, C, or E?

• S3 Lifecycle rules automate actions such as transitioning objects to different storage classes or deleting old objects.
• S3 bucket policies control access permissions; they do not preserve earlier object versions.
• S3 server-side encryption protects data confidentiality by encrypting objects at rest, but it does not prevent deletion or overwriting.

• Accidental deletion or overwriting ? S3 Versioning
• Unauthorized access ? bucket policies and IAM
• Data encryption ? server-side encryption

• Define the contractor’s deliverables, responsibilities, acceptance criteria, and deadlines.
• Agree on a reporting cadence to monitor progress.
• Allow the local company to use its expertise and manage its own work.

• A: “Under the supervision of the project manager” suggests excessive direct control and is less empowering.
• B: Micromanaging prevents the contractor from functioning independently and is inefficient.
• D: Deploying the contractor’s staff under the PM’s supervision creates a staffing/control arrangement rather than empowering the contracted company.

• A. Extranet
• B. VLAN
• C. Intranet
• D. VPN

• Answer: No (B)

• SaaS (Software as a Service) delivers applications over the internet; you don’t manage the underlying infrastructure or OS.
• Deploying Azure virtual machines requires provisioning and managing virtual machines, OS, updates, and networking—this is classic IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service).
• PaaS is for managed runtime environments (apps hosted on a platform), not for VM deployment.

• Correct options: C and D.

• The AWS Cloud Adoption Framework (CAF) security perspective focuses on capabilities to protect information and manage security risk.
• Observability (A) is primarily an operations/monitoring capability, not a core security capability under CAF.
• Incident and problem management (B) is IT service management/operations, not specifically a CAF security capability.
• Incident response (C) is a security-focused capability: detecting, containing, and recovering from security incidents.
• Infrastructure protection (D) involves applying security controls to protect the underlying infrastructure, which fits the security perspective.

• Answer: D: Making business cases for improvement action

• Continual Improvement focuses on identifying and planning improvements and ensuring they’re funded and prioritized. Creating a business case for an improvement action is part of justifying and obtaining support/resources to implement improvements.
• A (Identifying the cause of incidents) aligns with Problem Management.
• B (Authorizing changes) aligns with Change Enablement.
• C (Logging/managing incidents that result in improvement opportunities) aligns with Incident Management, not Continual Improvement.

• Correct answer: B (No, it does not).

• A purchase agreement in Dynamics 365 SCM is a vendor-side price arrangement. It sets prices/discounts for what your company buys from suppliers, not for what you sell to customers.
• The objective in Question 2 is to give clients a quantity-based discount on items they purchase from you. To accomplish this, you should configure a sales price / trade agreement (on the customer/sales side), not a purchase agreement.
• In a sales price trade agreement, you can define quantity breaks such as:

• Create a Sales price trade agreement for the item and relevant customer (or customer group).
• Add quantity breaks: 51–100 with 10% discount, 101+ with 15% discount.
• Ensure the agreement is active for the desired date range.

• '15' is a string. With + and a string, JavaScript does string concatenation: '15' + 10 -> '1510'.
• The result '1510' is then used in a multiplication: '1510' 2. The operator triggers numeric conversion, so '1510' becomes the number 1510.
• 1510 * 2 = 3020.

• If the code were let x = (15 + 10) * 2, the result would be 50 since 15 + 10 is numeric addition.

• Basic support does not include architectural/design assessments.
• Premier support includes advisory services such as architectural reviews/design assessments.

• The solution (subscribe to Premier support) does meet the goal. The correct choice should be Yes (A).
• The provided answer key showing B (No) is likely incorrect for current Azure support plans.

• Answer: C – netstat -an

• netstat -an lists all active connections and listening ports with numeric addresses, without resolving names. This lets you spot DoS patterns such as a flood of connections to a specific port or many connections from a single or few IPs.
• The other options don’t help as directly:

• Windows: netstat -an and look for numerous ESTABLISHED connections to a service or many SYNs to a port.
• Filter by port, e.g., netstat -an | findstr :80, or on Linux: ss -tunap | grep ':80'.

• Netstat provides a snapshot. DoS detection often benefits from continuous monitoring, flow data, and IDS/IPS logs.

• Correct answer: D) Microservices using API

• Why:

1. Define Power Platform DLP policies
2. Add custom prompt modifications
3. Conduct adversarial testing

1. DLP policies first

1. Prompt modifications second

1. Adversarial testing last

• Correct answer: All four statements are true (A, B, C, and D). The given key (A,B) is likely incorrect.

• A) Customers can change the size of the Warehouse after creation — Yes. You can resize a virtual warehouse after it’s created using ALTER WAREHOUSE ... SET WAREHOUSE_SIZE.
• B) A Warehouse can be resized while running — Yes. Snowflake supports online resizing; you can change the size without stopping queries.
• C) A Warehouse can be configured to suspend after a period of inactivity — Yes. You can enable auto-suspend with a delay (AUTO_SUSPEND).
• D) A Warehouse can be configured to auto-resume when new queries are submitted — Yes. You can enable auto-resume (AUTO_RESUME) so a suspended warehouse automatically resumes on new queries.

• Example commands:

• Even if a warehouse is resizing or auto-suspending, queries will be queued and then executed once the warehouse has the appropriate capacity.

• Correct answer: C: Amazon Comprehend.

• Why: The library wants to classify books based on their text content. This is an NLP (natural language processing) task. Amazon Comprehend is AWS’s managed NLP service that can perform content classification (including creating custom classifiers) and extract meaningful information from text. The other services are not focused on text classification:

• Quick note: In practice, you’d store the books in S3, extract text if needed (e.g., from PDFs with Textract), and then use Comprehend to classify the documents into topics or genres.

• The Well-Architected Framework has five pillars: Operational Excellence, Security, Reliability, Performance Efficiency, and Cost Optimization.
• Operational Excellence: how you run and improve your systems—monitoring, incident response, and evolving processes.
• Reliability: the ability of a workload to recover from failures, maintain uptime, and scale as demand changes.

• Availability (A) is not a pillar name; it’s an outcome that relates to Reliability.
• Scalability (C) isn’t a pillar name; scalability touches on Performance Efficiency.
• Responsive design (D) is not a pillar in the Well-Architected Framework.

• Risk tolerance describes the organization’s overall risk appetite, not the risks themselves.
• Risk transfer is a treatment option (e.g., insurance), not a documentation artifact.
• Risk analysis assesses likelihood and impact but doesn’t establish ownership or thresholds in a formal register.

• Honeypots: Decoy systems or services designed to attract attackers. Legitimate users should not access them, so activity on a honeypot is a strong indicator of unauthorized activity. Security teams can also observe attacker behavior.

• DNS sinkhole: Redirects requests for known malicious domains to a controlled internal server or blocks them. If an infected workstation attempts to contact command-and-control infrastructure, the sinkhole records the request and helps identify the compromised device.

• Tokenization: Protects sensitive data by replacing it with tokens.
• CI/CD: Automates software development and deployment.
• Threat modeling: Identifies potential risks before or during system design.
• Data obfuscation: Makes data harder to understand, but does not detect intruders.

• IPv6 address types:

• The block FF00::/12 is a subset of the multicast space, so it represents multicast addresses.
• Therefore, this block forwards packets to a multicast address (to multiple receivers) rather than to a single unicast address.
• The other prefixes are unicast and would deliver to a single interface.

• Why: A multi-modal embedding model maps both text and images into a shared vector space, enabling cross-modal similarity and retrieval (e.g., find images matching a text query or text matching an image).

• What it does: Enables efficient similarity search using a vector database or nearest-neighbor indexing.

• Why the other options aren’t suitable:

• Quick implementation note: you’d typically pair the embeddings with a vector store (e.g., ANN index) and possibly fine-tune on domain data for better alignment across modalities.

python 
import azure.cognitiveservices.speech as speechsdk 


speech_config = speechsdk.SpeechConfig( 
    subscription="YOUR_KEY", 
    region="YOUR_REGION" 
)

Important Azure Speech SDK classes

• SpeechConfig

• AudioConfig

python 
  audio_config = speechsdk.audio.AudioConfig( 
      use_default_microphone=True 
  )

• SpeechRecognizer

python 
  recognizer = speechsdk.SpeechRecognizer( 
      speech_config=speech_config, 
      audio_config=audio_config 
  )

• SpeechSynthesizer

• AudioOutputConfig

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