Free NCLEX-RN Exam Braindumps
National Council Licensure Examination - NCLEX-RN Questions 448–450 (page: 181)

Updated On: 9-Feb-2026

A 25-year-old lawyer who is married with three young children works long hours in an effort to become a partner in the law firm. Following a recent hospitalization for a bleeding ulcer, he was referred for therapy to treat this psychophysiological disorder. On meeting with the therapist, he informed him or her that he was a busy man and did not have much time for this "psych stuff." When guiding the client to ventilate his feelings, the therapist can expect him to express feelings of:

  1. Guilt
  2. Shame
  3. Despair
  4. Anger

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

(A) Guilt relates to depression. (B) Shame is not associated with psychophysiological disorders. (C) Despair relates to depression. (D) Repressed anger is associated with psychophysiological disorders.



A 16-year-old client with a diagnosis of oppositional defiant disorder is threatening violence toward another child. In managing a potentially violent client, the nurse:

  1. Must use the least restrictive measure possible to control the behavior
  2. Should put the client in seclusion until he promises to behave appropriately
  3. Should apply full restraints until the behavior is under control
  4. Should allow other clients to observe the acting out so that they can learn from the experience

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

(A) This answer is correct. Least restrictive measures should always be attempted before a client is placed in seclusion or restraints. The nurse should first try a calm verbal approach, suggest a quiet room, or request that the client take "time-out" before placing the client in seclusion, givingmedication as necessary, or restraining. (B) This answer is incorrect. A calm verbal approach or requesting that a client go to his room should be attempted before restraining. (C) This answer is incorrect. Restraints should be applied only after all other measures fail to control the behavior. (D) This answer is incorrect. Other clients should be removed from the area. It is often very anxiety producing for other clients to see a peer out of control. It could also lead to mass acting- out behaviors.



A 16-year-old client with a diagnosis of oppositional defiant disorder is threatening violence toward another child. In managing a potentially violent client, the nurse:

  1. Must use the least restrictive measure possible to control the behavior
  2. Should put the client in seclusion until he promises to behave appropriately
  3. Should apply full restraints until the behavior is under control
  4. Should allow other clients to observe the acting out so that they can learn from the experience

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

(A) This answer is correct. Least restrictive measures should always be attempted before a client is placed in seclusion or restraints. The nurse should first try a calm verbal approach, suggest a quiet room, or request that the client take "time-out" before placing the client in seclusion, givingmedication as necessary, or restraining. (B) This answer is incorrect. A calm verbal approach or requesting that a client go to his room should be attempted before restraining. (C) This answer is incorrect. Restraints should be applied only after all other measures fail to control the behavior. (D) This answer is incorrect. Other clients should be removed from the area. It is often very anxiety producing for other clients to see a peer out of control. It could also lead to mass acting- out behaviors.



A 19-year-old male client arrived via ambulance to the emergency room following a motorcycle accident. He is comatose. His face has evidence of dried blood. On assessment, the nurse notes an obvious injury to his left eye. The preferred positioning for a client with an obvious eye injury is:

  1. Reclining to control bleeding
  2. Any position in which the client is comfortable
  3. Side-lying, either left or right
  4. Sitting with head support

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

(A) A reclining position can cause a penetrating object to advance further into the eye. (B) Prevention of further injury is the priority, not comfort. (C) A side-lying position may increase intraocular and intracranial pressure if an accompanying head injury is suspected. (D) A sitting position with the head supported will prevent further injury while allowing injury care to take place.



A 19-year-old male client arrived via ambulance to the emergency room following a motorcycle accident. He is comatose. His face has evidence of dried blood. On assessment, the nurse notes an obvious injury to his left eye. The preferred positioning for a client with an obvious eye injury is:

  1. Reclining to control bleeding
  2. Any position in which the client is comfortable
  3. Side-lying, either left or right
  4. Sitting with head support

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

(A) A reclining position can cause a penetrating object to advance further into the eye. (B) Prevention of further injury is the priority, not comfort. (C) A side-lying position may increase intraocular and intracranial pressure if an accompanying head injury is suspected. (D) A sitting position with the head supported will prevent further injury while allowing injury care to take place.



Viewing page 181 of 345
Viewing questions 901 - 862 out of 862 questions


Post your Comments and Discuss NCLEX NCLEX-RN exam prep with other Community members:

AI Tutor AI Tutor 👋 I’m here to help!