Nutanix NCA-5.20 Exam Prep
Nutanix Certified Associate (NCA) 5.20 Exam (Page 6 )

apex 
Set<Id> accountIds = new Set<Id>{ accountId1, accountId2 }; 


List<Account> accounts = [ 
    SELECT Id, Name 
    FROM Account 
    WHERE Id IN :accountIds 
];

• A: LIMIT accepts a number, not a collection of IDs.
• B: Set.containsAll() checks set contents in Apex; it does not filter SOQL results.
• C: Database.query() accepts a dynamic SOQL string, not a Set<Id> directly.

1. Yes — One account can manage multiple subscriptions

1. No — You cannot merge two subscriptions into one

1. Yes — A resource belongs to only one subscription

1. insert con; ? 1
2. Database.setSavepoint(); ? 2
3. update con; ? 3
4. Database.rollback(sp_admin); ? 4

1. Discovery tries the SSH probe first.
2. SSH fails.
3. Discovery tries SNMP, which succeeds.
4. Discovery records SNMP as the preferred service for that IP.
5. Future discoveries try SNMP first.

• Classification identifies the type of device, such as a server, router, or printer.
• Credential affinity remembers which credentials work for a device.
• MID Server affinity associates a device or network with a particular MID Server.
• IP service affinity specifically controls the preferred discovery protocol or service.

• UPS battery-backed outlets: Connect only essential devices needed during an outage:

• Surge-protector-only outlets: Connect nonessential devices, especially the printer. Printing does not need to continue while you are saving work and shutting down.
• UPS power source: Plug the UPS directly into a wall outlet.
• Surge protector power source: Plug it directly into a wall outlet as well. Do not normally plug a surge protector into the UPS, because that creates a daisy chain and can overload the UPS.

• Extracted text and images
• Page numbers and bounding polygons for citation or grounding
• Structured tables, including tables that continue across multiple pages
• Document structure such as sections and figures

• Document Extraction: Extracts basic text and images, but does not provide the full layout and structural metadata required here.
• Azure Content Understanding in Foundry Tools: A broader content-analysis service, not the single built-in Azure AI Search skill expected by this question.
• GenAI Prompt: Can transform or interpret content but does not inherently produce reliable document geometry and page-level polygons.

• Default route: 0.0.0.0/0; used only when no more specific route exists.
• Network route: A route covering the destination, such as 10.10.13.0/24.
• Host route: An exact 10.10.13.10/32 entry in the routing table.
• Floating static route: A backup static route with a higher administrative distance.

• Additional running costs: $800
• Less depreciation: $300

• The $100 reduction in fixed production overhead absorbed is only an accounting reallocation. It does not represent an actual saving in total fixed overhead.

• Training data for potential bias before model training
• Trained models for bias in predictions
• Model features to help explain how they influence predictions

• A: RAG workflows are typically built using services such as Amazon Bedrock, knowledge bases, and data sources.
• B: Monitoring model quality in production is primarily associated with SageMaker Model Monitor.
• C: Documenting model details is handled by capabilities such as SageMaker Model Cards.

• Each Case must follow defined support steps.
• Each step must be completed within a specified time limit.

• Case Escalation Rules: Escalate Cases based mainly on age or criteria; they do not model a complete sequence of service steps.
• Process Builder with Scheduled Actions: Can automate time-based actions but is not the standard framework for Case service-level commitments.
• Omni-Channel Routing: Routes work to agents based on capacity and priority; it does not track Case lifecycle deadlines.

• Lead investigator: Coordinates the investigation and directs the response.
• Information security representative: Provides security expertise and helps assess the incident.
• Technical representative: Preserves system evidence, takes forensic backups, and supports technical analysis.
• Legal representative: Advises on legal, regulatory, privacy, and evidence-handling requirements.

• Render thousands of animation frames
• Generate product images in multiple sizes
• Apply filters or transformations to a large image collection
• Produce visual effects for a video

• A — VARIANT "null" values are not the same as SQL NULL values: True

• B — Frequent, single-row DMLs: False

• C — Validate data before loading into the target table: True

• D — Use staging tables to manage MERGE statements: True

• Maintain head office control: Transfer pricing generally supports decentralisation rather than direct head-office control.
• Establish centralised decision making: This conflicts with divisional autonomy.
• Develop a top-down culture: Transfer pricing is intended to support empowered divisions and goal congruence, not impose purely top-down management.

• NAT traversal: Helps WAN Edge, vSmart, and vManage devices discover how to reach one another through NAT.
• Initial orchestration: Authenticates and introduces devices when they first join the SD-WAN fabric.
• Connection brokering: Provides information that allows devices to form their required control connections, after which the vBond is generally not in the data path.

• WAN Edge: Forwards user traffic and forms secure tunnels.
• vSmart: Controls the overlay control plane and distributes routes and policies.
• vManage: Provides centralized management, configuration, and monitoring.

• Identifies which user or department owns the device
• Supports inventory and compliance requirements
• Enables tracking of lost, stolen, retired, or unauthorized devices
• Helps enforce security controls such as mobile-device management and secure configuration

• A. IDS attack signatures: An IDS primarily detects suspicious network activity; it is not the best control for scanning uploaded documents for malware.
• C. Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers and improves availability, but does not inspect files for malware.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications against attacks such as SQL injection and command injection. It may help secure the upload function, but malware scanning is the key requirement here.

• The Intune device limit restriction does not apply in the normal way; DEM enrollment supports up to 1,000 devices.
• However, the Microsoft Entra maximum number of devices per user setting can still impose a limit when the enrollment creates an Entra device object.
• Therefore, a DEM account is not automatically unlimited. The effective limit depends on the Entra device setting and the enrollment/join type.

• A — Use getRecordTypeInfosByDeveloperName()

apex 
  Id rtId = Schema.SObjectType.Account 
      .getRecordTypeInfosByDeveloperName() 
      .get('Business_Account') 
      .getRecordTypeId();

• C — Query the RecordType object

apex 
  RecordType rt = [ 
      SELECT Id 
      FROM RecordType 
      WHERE SObjectType = 'Account' 
      AND Name = 'Business Account' 
      LIMIT 1 
  ];

• B: An outbound SOAP call is unnecessary and inefficient.
• D: Hardcoding an ID is not dynamic, and IDs can differ between orgs.

• Customers may boycott V’s products.
• Supermarket customers may stop buying from V.
• Investors may view V as having higher legal, ethical and reputational risk.
• V could face fines, lawsuits, contract losses and higher costs.
• Expected future profits may fall.

• Guest access: Controls external users invited into your teams as guests. It is not the primary setting for restricting federated communication by domain.
• Messaging policy: Controls messaging features, such as chat or message editing, rather than which organizations users can communicate with.
• Org-wide Teams settings: Contains broad Teams-wide configuration, but domain-based external communication is configured under External access.

• IRR assumes that interim cash flows can be reinvested at the project’s own IRR. This may be unrealistic, especially when the IRR is very high.
• MIRR assumes reinvestment at a specified rate, usually the company’s cost of capital or another realistic reinvestment rate.

• B: MIRR does not specifically favour projects with long payback periods.
• C: MIRR and IRR can rank competing projects differently.
• D: MIRR is not always higher than IRR; it may be higher or lower depending on the cash flows and reinvestment rate.

• Authentication: Verifies who the user is.
• Authorization: Determines what the authenticated user is allowed to access.
• Accounting: Records login activity and resource usage.

• CIA: Confidentiality, integrity, and availability—the core security objectives.
• ACL: Access Control List; rules that permit or deny traffic or access.
• PEM: A format and standard commonly associated with encoded certificates and keys.

• Microsoft manages the physical datacenter, hardware, and virtualization.
• You manage the virtual machine’s operating system, installed software, configuration, and data.
• You choose the VM size, storage, networking, and scaling options.

• SaaS: You consume a complete application managed by the provider, such as Microsoft 365.
• PaaS: You deploy applications without managing the underlying operating system or VM infrastructure, such as Azure App Service.

• Partners first log in to the corporate portal, which uses the shared SAML Identity Provider.
• When they select a Salesforce link, the IdP can send a SAML assertion directly to Salesforce.
• Salesforce validates the assertion and grants access to the Partner Community without requiring another login. This is IdP-initiated SSO because authentication begins outside Salesforce.

• SP-initiated SSO starts when Salesforce sends an authentication request to the IdP. That would be appropriate if users began by visiting Salesforce.
• The Web Server and User Agent OAuth flows are for OAuth authorization, not browser-based SAML federation between an IdP and Salesforce.

• Tokens: Individual units of text processed by a model, such as words, subwords, or characters.
• Models: Systems that learn patterns and generate predictions or outputs.
• Binaries: Data represented using the binary number system, not semantic representations.

DAX 
Blue Sales = 
CALCULATE( 
    [Total Sales], 
    KEEPFILTERS('Product'[Color] = "Blue") 
)

• CALCULATE evaluates [Total Sales] after applying an additional filter.
• 'Product'[Color] = "Blue" restricts the calculation to blue products.
• KEEPFILTERS ensures the existing filter context is preserved. For example, filters for year, region, or customer remain active. If Color is already filtered, the blue condition is applied as an intersection rather than replacing the existing filter.
• Avoid ALL, because it removes filters and would not maintain the existing context.

• Third-party enterprise application with embedded AI: The provider manages most security controls. The customer mainly manages users, data, and configuration.
• Application using an existing third-party FM: The customer controls the application and its inputs/outputs, but the provider controls the underlying model and infrastructure.
• Fine-tuning a third-party FM: The customer has additional responsibility for training data, data protection, and model behavior, but still depends on the provider’s base model and platform.
• Building and training a model from scratch: The customer controls the model, training data, application, deployment, and many security safeguards. This creates the greatest security ownership.

• Injection
• Broken access control
• Authentication failures
• Security misconfiguration
• Cross-site scripting

• STIX: A standardized language and format for exchanging threat intelligence.
• OVAL: Used to describe and assess system vulnerabilities and configuration issues.
• Threat intelligence feed: Provides current indicators and intelligence about threats, but not necessarily a structured overview of common application exploitation methods.
• CVE: A catalog of individually identified, publicly disclosed vulnerabilities.

• Third-party attestation: Provides independent confirmation, often for formal compliance reporting, but is not usually performed frequently.
• Penetration testing: Attempts to exploit vulnerabilities; it focuses on technical security, not overall compliance procedures.
• Vulnerability scans: Identify known technical weaknesses in systems, but do not evaluate whether policies and processes meet compliance requirements.

• Structure requirements documents
• Draft user stories and acceptance criteria
• Create templates for functional and nonfunctional requirements
• Turn natural-language descriptions into organized documentation or implementation examples

• A: “Automatically generating detailed requirements documents” overstates Copilot’s role; it assists but does not independently determine complete requirements.
• C: /help provides guidance about Copilot features, not reliable requirements-conflict detection.
• D: Stakeholder communication and meetings remain human responsibilities.

• Who owns security risks and decisions
• Who is responsible for implementing controls
• Who reports security performance to management
• How security responsibilities align with business objectives

• B — Compliance with audit requirements: Governance may support compliance, but audit compliance is not its main objective.
• C — Monitoring security incidents: This is an operational security activity, not the central purpose of governance.
• D — Creation of tactical solutions: Governance establishes direction and oversight; tactical solutions belong to management and operational teams.

• Behavioral and anomaly detection
• Threat intelligence integration
• User and entity behavior analytics
• Automated response actions, often through SOAR integration

• Virus signatures: Associated primarily with antivirus or endpoint protection.
• Security agent deployment: Usually an endpoint-management or EDR function.
• Vulnerability scanning: Typically performed by vulnerability-management tools, though a SIEM may integrate their results.

• A: Build a custom API — possible, but unnecessary as the primary solution and potentially more costly to develop and maintain.
• B: Use pre-built chatbots — these generally answer questions but may not support the required custom workflow and real-time actions.
• C: Fine-tune with sample data — improves model behavior but does not provide live database access.
• D: Google Cloud databases + Vertex AI — stores current inventory data and lets an AI agent retrieve it and take actions based on up-to-date information.

• A. Remove rows where Sales[Status] is Canceled

• E. Remove Sales[Canceled Date]

• B: Removing Sales_Date would remove information users need—the date portion.
• C: Changing Delivery_Time to Integer could alter its meaning or precision and is not necessarily safe.
• D: Splitting the date/time column creates additional columns rather than simply removing unnecessary data.

• Confirming the data has the required columns and data types
• Handling missing or duplicate records
• Converting data into a suitable format
• Selecting or engineering useful features
• Splitting it into training, validation, and test sets

1. Prepare the training data
2. Select an algorithm or configure AutoML
3. Train the model
4. Evaluate its performance
5. Tune hyperparameters if needed
6. Deploy the model

Correct sequence

1. Merge Sales_Region with Sales_Manager using an inner join

1. Merge Region_Manager with Manager using an inner join

1. Merge Sales_Region and Region_Manager using a right join as a new query

• A: Not expanding would increase its dependence.
• B: More business from the same corporation would make dependence worse.
• D: Passing work to other minority businesses does not solve its own dependence.
• E: The passage does not suggest that it can force or influence the corporation to give work to others.

• Constrained VMs: VMs whose workloads are experiencing resource pressure, such as insufficient CPU or memory. They may need additional resources or optimization.
• Overprovisioned VMs: VMs allocated more CPU, memory, or storage than their workloads require. Their resources may be reclaimed or reduced.

• Underprovisioned VMs: This is not the predefined view identified for this report question.
• Zombie VMs: These are typically inactive or unused VMs and are useful for cleanup, but they are not the two views specifically intended here to identify inefficient resource allocation.

• Suspended an operator who correctly refused to use unsafe equipment.
• Rewarded another operator for using the equipment despite the broken safety guard.

• A — Management is not particularly concerned with managing risks.

• B — Employees will perceive that management does not care about health and safety risks.

• C — This factory’s safety record is likely to be poor.

• 24 cores: Available in the Business Critical provisioned-compute configurations.
• Approximately 124 GB memory: Matches the memory capacity of the relevant Business Critical hardware configuration.
• More than 50,000 IOPS: Business Critical uses local SSD storage and provides the high I/O performance required here.
• 500 GB storage: Well within the tier’s supported capacity.

• Premium: The DTU-based Premium tier does not provide the required combination of compute, memory, and I/O characteristics.
• Hyperscale: Hyperscale is primarily intended for very large databases and independent storage scaling. It is not the best match for these specific high-memory and high-IOPS requirements.

• B — Sales staff will tender for riskier contracts:

• C — Sales staff will encroach on other territories:

• D — Sales staff will look for new jobs:

Why this is correct

• Each user authenticates with their own Google account.
• Google manages the user’s SSH key association.
• IAM controls who can access instances.
• Access can be audited by user identity, so security can determine who accessed a VM.
• Granting the role to a Google group avoids managing permissions individually.

Why the others don’t apply

• A: A shared private key is difficult to distribute securely and cannot reliably identify which employee used it.
• B: Manually collecting and deploying keys on every instance is operationally inefficient and complicates auditing.
• D: A project-wide shared key has the same identity and key-management problems as option A. It also does not provide per-user accountability.

• Install unauthorized or unsupported software
• Access features blocked by the manufacturer or operating system
• Customize system behavior beyond normal settings

• The connected switch
• The switch’s port/interface
• Device and port descriptions
• Sometimes VLAN or management information

• IKE: Establishes security associations for IPsec VPNs.
• VLAN: Defines logical network segmentation; it does not identify a physical switch port.
• netstat: Displays local network connections and statistics, not the upstream switch and port.

• Active remediation actions role in Microsoft Defender for Endpoint

• Security Reader role in Azure AD/Entra ID

• Security Administrator is broader than necessary because it grants extensive security-management permissions, violating least privilege.
• Compliance Data Administrator is intended for compliance data management, not Defender for Endpoint remediation approvals.

• Match found: ServiceNow updates the existing target record.
• No match found: ServiceNow normally creates a new target record.
• No Transform Map is created or deleted based on whether a match is found.

• A local network gateway represents an on-premises network—its address space and VPN device information—for an Azure Site-to-Site VPN connection.
• It does not control which connection types are allowed between Azure web servers and database servers.
• It is also unnecessary when both server groups are in the same Azure virtual network.

• The load balancer provides the listener’s frontend IP address.
• The active SQL Server node must also respond to that same listener IP.
• Enabling Floating IP allows the listener IP to be preserved and handled correctly by the active replica.
• Without it, SQL connections may be sent to a node that cannot correctly claim the listener address.

• A health probe for the SQL Server port
• A load-balancing rule using the listener port
• Floating IP enabled on that rule