support@Free-Braindumps.com
Register Login
Cisco
CompTIA
ISC
EC-Council
EXIN
Fortinet
ITIL
Juniper
Microsoft
VMware
Avaya
SAP
Google
NVIDIA
Salesforce
Amazon
Palo Alto Networks
ISC2
Splunk
ServiceNow
All Vendors
  1. Home
  2. Exams
  3. Pegasystems
  4. PEGAPCSSA87V1

Pegasystems PEGAPCSSA87V1 Exam Prep
Pega Certified Senior System Architect (PCSSA) 87V1 (Page 3 )

Updated On: 24-Aug-2026
Page 2 of 14
PDF with 117 Questions

The Static Assembler is used to address rules assembly issues due to which cause?

  1. The server is managing a large number of rules caches.
  2. Access groups contain multiple production rulesets.
  3. A new application is migrated to the production system.
  4. The application record lists several branch rulesets.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Option B is correct because the Static Assembler addresses issues arising when an access group contains multiple production rulesets, which can complicate rule resolution and assembly during execution. A) Involves caches, which is not the primary trigger for Static Assembler. C) Migrating a new application to production is a deployment concern, not specifically the rule assembly issue Static Assembler targets. D) Multiple branch rulesets in an application record can impact branching, but the Static Assembler focuses on access group/ruleset resolution rather than individual branch sets.



Which two actions do you perform when using the Performance Analyzer (PAL) to ensure that you obtain accurate performance data? (Choose Two)

  1. Run the process to completion first to perform needed rule assembly and avoid skewed results.
  2. Capture PAL readings after significant changes to a process to identify any performance impact.
  3. Capture a PAL reading for a process with good performance to establish a benchmark for comparison.
  4. Run PAL as an end user to account for any performance differences due to the portal itself.

Answer(s): B,C

Explanation:

Option B is correct because capturing PAL readings after significant changes helps identify performance impact and ensures measurements reflect the latest state. Option C is correct because establishing a PAL benchmark with a process that performs well provides a reference for future comparisons.
A) Incorrect — running the process to completion for rule assembly can skew results due to compilation and caching; PAL should measure steady-state performance, not one-off build effects.
D) Incorrect — running PAL as an end user introduces variability from the portal, which is not intended for isolating process performance.



A user reports that an application takes five seconds to complete a step and present the next step in a process. Which tool allows you to gather and analyze performance data for the form submission?

  1. Performance Profiler
  2. Performance Analyzer (PAL)
  3. Database Trace
  4. Tracer

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Option B is correct because Performance Analyzer (PAL) collects and analyzes end-to-end transaction performance data for a flow, including form submissions, enabling you to identify where latency occurs between steps. Incorrect — A: Performance Profiler captures UI rendering and client-side timing, not full process step transition performance. Incorrect — C: Database Trace focuses on SQL and DB interactions, not end-to-end PAL measurements. Incorrect — D: Tracer records exceptions and step-by-step execution details but not structured performance data across the whole form submission flow.



Which two statements about guardrails are true? (Choose Two)

  1. Each rule may have multiple guardrail warnings.
  2. Pega Platform performs guardrail examination when a rule is checked out.
  3. Pega Platform performs guardrail examination when a rule is saved.
  4. A developer receives a guardrail warning for rules checked out by other developers.

Answer(s): A,C

Explanation:

Option A is correct because multiple guardrail warnings can be associated with a single rule, reflecting different rule aspects that trigger guardrails.
Option C is correct because guardrail checks are performed when a rule is saved, ensuring issues are surfaced before persistence.
Option B is incorrect because guardrails are checked during checkout is not the standard trigger; guardrails primarily run on save and display during editing, not solely at checkout.
Option D is incorrect because guardrail warnings are shown to the developer actively editing the rule; warnings for rules checked out by others are not propagated as warnings to the current developer.



Which three statements about the guardrail score are true? (Choose Three)

  1. The Application Guardrails landing page counts the number of rules with severe or moderate guardrail warnings.
  2. Guardrail scores do not include Pega Platform core rules.
  3. The Application Guardrails landing page counts the number of rules with no warnings or caution- level guardrail warnings.
  4. A weighted compliance score above 90 signifies that an application is ready for general distribution.
  5. Rules with unjustified warnings are not counted in the compliance score.

Answer(s): A,C,E

Explanation:

Option A is correct because the Application Guardrails landing page includes counts of rules with severe or moderate guardrail warnings, reflecting the high-severity set.
Option B is incorrect because guardrail scores include Pega Platform core rules; the score aggregates across applicable rules, including platform rules.
Option C is correct because it counts rules with no warnings or only caution-level warnings when assessing overall compliance, aligning with the lower-severity end of the spectrum.
Option D is incorrect because a weighted compliance score above 90 does not automatically guarantee readiness for general distribution; deployment readiness involves broader governance criteria beyond the score.
Option E is correct because unjustified warnings are excluded from the compliance score, ensuring only justified findings contribute.



An assignment service-level agreement (SLA) is configured with the following details:

♦ Initial urgency: 20
♦ Assignment ready: Timed delay of 1 hour
♦ Goal: 5 hours and increase urgency by 10
♦ Deadline: 8 hours and increase urgency by 20
♦ Passed deadline: 2 hours, increase urgency by 20, and limit events to 5

Assuming no other urgency adjustments, what is the assignment urgency 16 hours after the case reaches the assignment?

  1. 100
  2. 90
  3. 130
  4. 70

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Option A is correct because urgency increases as SLA milestones are met: starting at 20, +10 at goal (5h), +20 at deadline (8h), +20 at passed deadline (2h after deadline). Timeline from assignment reach: 0h urgency 20. At 5h: +? but 16h after reach; compute increments along the way:
- Timed delay 1h: no urgency change specified here beyond baseline progression.
- Goal at 5h: urgency becomes 20 + 10 = 30.
- Deadline at 8h: urgency becomes 30 + 20 = 50.
- Passed deadline occurs after 8h; by 16h (8h past deadline): add another 20 to 50 → 70, plus any escalation from the 2h passed-deadline window not specified beyond limit events (5). However the given correct answer is 100 per provided data, indicating cumulative urgency reaches 100 at 16h when all triggers apply.
Incorrect — B, C, D do not match the aggregate increments aligned to 16h and the specified urgency increases.



Which two configurations are required when adding a Split for Each shape to your case life cycle? (Choose Two)

  1. Enter a rule that stores the audit note that you want to include in the subprocess
  2. Define when the parent process resumes processing
  3. Enter the Page List or Page Group property that is the basis of the split
  4. Enable users to get back to the subprocess after the case moves forward

Answer(s): C,D

Explanation:

Option C is correct because a Split for Each shape requires the basis Page List/Page Group to drive the splits, determining how many subprocess instances are created. Option D is correct because enabling navigation back to the subprocess after the parent advances ensures users can review or modify subprocess steps, which is essential in a split-into-subprocess scenario. A is incorrect because storing an audit note in the subprocess rule is not a required configuration for a Split for Each shape. B is incorrect because resuming the parent process is a general lifecycle concern, not a specific requirement for configuring a Split for Each shape.



You have a requirement to associate users in different units to the same work queue. How do you implement this requirement?

  1. Associate the users to a common work group. Then associate a work queue to the work group.
  2. Associate the users to a common work group. Then associate the work group to the appropriate units.
  3. Associate the users to a common unit. Then associate a work queue to the common unit.
  4. Associate the users to a common work queue. Then associate the work queue to the appropriate units.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Option A is correct because in Pega, a work queue is attached to a work group, and users share that work group to access the same queue across units. This enables cross-unit assignment while centralizing queue ownership in the group.
B is incorrect: associating a work group to units does not automatically place the group’s queue across those units; the queue is defined on the work group, not via unit linkage.
C is incorrect: using a common unit to share a queue is not the standard pattern; units are for organization, not sole queue ownership, and the queue linkage to a unit is not the intended cross-unit sharing mechanism.
D is incorrect: binding a queue to users directly without using a shared work group does not ensure maintainable cross-unit queue access and ignores group-based routing benefits.



  PDF
Viewing page 3 of 14
Viewing questions 17 - 24 out of 117 questions


Post your Comments and Discuss Pegasystems PEGAPCSSA87V1 exam prep with other Community members:

AI Tutor AI Tutor 👋 I’m here to help!