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Free ITIL-4-Specialist-Monitor-Support-Fulfil Exam Braindumps (page: 18)

Page 17 of 43
PDF with 166 Questions

What is NOT a potential reason for registering an incident?

  1. The customer is unhappy with the service level agreement
  2. Users perceiving the situation as abnormal
  3. Service level agreement is breached
  4. A specialist thinks that the service is not operating normally

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Being unhappy with the service level agreement (SLA) is not a valid reason for registering an incident. An incident is an unplanned interruption to a service or reduction in the quality of a service, whereas dissatisfaction with an SLA would be managed through other processes like service level management or complaints handling.
Users perceiving a situation as abnormal, a breach of SLA, and a specialist identifying a service issue are valid reasons for registering an incident.



The service management team is analysing different practices, products, and services to map relevant value streams for further improvements. They are currently looking at the incident management value stream and are trying to identify waste.
Which of the following is the BEST step for analysing information to find waste?

  1. Reflect on the value stream map
  2. Do the service value stream walk
  3. Identify the scope of the value stream analysis
  4. Map the activities and the information flows

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The best way to identify waste in a value stream is to map the activities and information flows. This helps visualize how work and information move through the process, making it easier to identify bottlenecks, redundancies, or unnecessary steps that contribute to inefficiency. Reflecting on the value stream map (Option A) and walking the service value stream (Option B) are useful steps but not as effective for identifying waste as mapping the detailed activities and flows. Identifying the scope (Option C) is an important first step, but it doesn't directly help in identifying waste.



Which of the following is NOT a key metric for the practice success factor 'resolving incidents quickly and efficiently'?

  1. Time between incident detection and acceptance for diagnosis
  2. User satisfaction with incident handling and resolution
  3. Percentage of incidents resolved before being reported by users
  4. Percentage of incidents detected via monitoring and event management

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

To determine the correct answer, we must first evaluate each of the metrics provided in the options against the ITIL 4 guidelines for Incident Management. Time between incident detection and acceptance for diagnosis:

This metric is critical in measuring the efficiency of incident response processes, as it indicates how quickly an incident is identified and taken up for diagnosis. ITIL emphasizes that timely detection and diagnosis are vital to resolving incidents efficiently, making this a relevant key metric. User satisfaction with incident handling and resolution:
ITIL 4 places strong emphasis on customer-centricity, including user satisfaction as a key measure of service success. Monitoring user satisfaction helps assess the effectiveness and user-friendliness of incident handling, which is essential for ensuring the quality of service. This is explicitly mentioned in ITIL practices for service management.
Percentage of incidents resolved before being reported by users (Correct Answer):
Although detecting incidents before users report them is important, it is not typically used as a direct measure of incident resolution effectiveness. Instead, this is more of a metric associated with Event Management and Monitoring, where systems automatically detect potential issues before they impact users. Thus, while it helps minimize disruption, it does not directly measure how well incidents are resolved after they are detected.
Percentage of incidents detected via monitoring and event management:
This metric is related to the ITIL practices of monitoring and event management, which are crucial for proactively identifying issues before they affect users. It is an important metric for improving incident detection and, subsequently, the speed of resolution. In conclusion, the correct answer is C, as the percentage of incidents resolved before being reported by users is more relevant to event detection and monitoring processes rather than a direct indicator of the effectiveness of resolving incidents quickly and efficiently. The other options represent key metrics directly linked to the success factor of resolving incidents efficiently, as outlined in ITIL 4.



Which of the following is the BEST description of practice capability level 3?

  1. The practice is performed as initial or intuitive
  2. The practice systematically achieves its purpose through a basic set of activities
  3. The practice is well defined and achieves its purpose in an organized way
  4. The practice is continually improving organizational capabilities associated with its purpose

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

In ITIL 4, practice capability levels are tied to the maturity of how a practice achieves its purpose. The question refers to "practice capability level 3." To understand this, let's explore the context of capability levels.
Level 1: Initial or Intuitive: This is the most basic level, where a practice is typically ad-hoc and not standardized. It operates on an informal basis and lacks systematic control. This description aligns with Option A ("The practice is performed as initial or intuitive"). Level 2: Basic Set of Activities: At this level, the practice systematically starts achieving its intended purpose but often with minimal documentation or governance. It includes a basic but incomplete set of activities. This correlates with Option B ("The practice systematically achieves its purpose through a basic set of activities").
Level 3: Well Defined and Organized: A practice at this level is well-defined and operates in a more organized way. It ensures that processes and standards are followed consistently. However, this is not the highest level of capability, and the practice may still lack continuous improvement mechanisms.

This matches Option C ("The practice is well defined and achieves its purpose in an organized way"). Level 4: Continual Improvement: This is the highest capability level, where the practice not only achieves its purpose but also incorporates mechanisms for continuous improvement. It evolves to improve the organizational capabilities related to its purpose. This aligns with Option D ("The practice is continually improving organizational capabilities associated with its purpose"). At this level, the practice is embedded into the culture of continuous learning and improvement, which is crucial for maintaining organizational effectiveness in the long term. The correct answer, Option D, represents the highest level of practice maturity, emphasizing continual improvement. This level ensures that the practice is not static but evolves by improving the capabilities needed to fulfill its purpose.






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