Salesforce ADX-201 Exam Prep
Administrative Essentials for New Admins in Lightning Experience (Page 108 )

• A is incorrect: Flow Debugger is for debugging Salesforce Flows, not Trust Layer masking.
• B is incomplete/misleading: Requesting audit data may be part of reviewing the results, but collection and storage must first be enabled.
• C is correct: It describes the initial validation step.

• Packet loss
• Latency
• Jitter
• Call quality by user, device, network, location, or building

• Teams Usage Report: Shows adoption and usage statistics, not detailed call-quality metrics.
• Teams Device Usage Report: Reports which devices are being used and how, but does not provide detailed packet-loss analysis.
• Microsoft Network Testing Companion: Helps assess network readiness before deployment, but it is not the primary tool for analyzing packet loss from actual Teams calls.

• B. Deploy to a SageMaker endpoint: This is needed for SageMaker-hosted models, not for a model intended to be used directly in Amazon Bedrock.
• C. Register with SageMaker Model Registry: SageMaker Model Registry is unrelated to invoking custom models in Bedrock.
• D. Grant access in Bedrock: Access permissions may be necessary, but they do not replace the required provisioned capacity.

• Disable default accounts: Default or unused accounts may have known usernames or predictable settings, making them targets. They should be disabled, removed, or securely configured.
• Remove unnecessary services: Every running service creates potential vulnerabilities. Removing services the server does not need reduces exploitable entry points.

• Add the server to the asset inventory: Important for asset management, but not a hardening step.
• Document default passwords: Default passwords should be changed or eliminated—not documented for continued use.
• Send server logs to the SIEM: Valuable for monitoring and detection, but generally performed as part of logging/monitoring configuration.
• Join the server to the corporate domain: May be necessary operationally, but does not itself harden the server.

• SQL injection
• Cross-site scripting (XSS)
• Malicious or malformed web requests
• Some application-layer attacks

• Layer 4 firewall: Filters based mainly on IP addresses, ports, and transport protocols; it cannot deeply inspect web application content.
• NGFW: Provides advanced network filtering and may include application awareness, but a WAF is more specifically designed to protect web applications.
• UTM: Combines several security functions in one appliance, but it is not the most targeted solution for a web portal.

• Footprinting is reconnaissance used to map an organization’s network, hosts, naming conventions, and services.
• A name such as fshare.int.complia.org suggests an internal file-sharing host (fshare) and an internal naming structure (int).
• This can reveal useful information to an attacker before attempting exploitation.

• ISP-assigned address space: Usually determined through public registration and DNS data, not an internal hostname.
• DNS sinkhole bypass: Would involve avoiding redirected malicious-domain queries.
• Initial access: DNS reconnaissance alone does not compromise the server.
• Data exfiltration: DNS tunneling typically generates many encoded or unusually long subdomain queries, not simply a meaningful internal hostname.

• Two-part tariff pricing: $10 per unit
• Dual pricing: $20 per unit

Two-part tariff pricing

Dual pricing

• Division X, the seller, is credited with the market price: \(\$20\)
• Division Y, the buyer, is charged the marginal cost: \(\$10\)

• The audience and stakeholders
• The complexity and type of requirements
• The communication method and level of detail needed
• Whether to use diagrams, models, documents, demonstrations, or slides

• B: Authority to host the presentation is not the key preparation activity.
• C: Stakeholder sign-off may occur later; presenting requirements does not always require formal approval beforehand.
• D: A scribe may be useful in a meeting, but hiring one is not a core preparation requirement for presenting.

• Containment policy: controls permitted communication during containment.
• Detection/response configuration: determines when containment is initiated.

• Highly polished, organization-wide presentations
• Advanced dashboard design and customization
• Broader business-user distribution and interaction
• Specialized BI governance and modeling features

• FTP — Transfers files using a client/server model and supports authentication. It uses separate control and data connections.
• TFTP — A very simple file-transfer protocol with no authentication and minimal features. Commonly used to transfer router or switch configuration files and IOS images.
• SCP — Securely copies files over SSH. It provides encryption and authentication.
• SFTP — Also transfers files securely through SSH, but provides more file-management capabilities than traditional SCP.
• HTTP/HTTPS — Primarily web protocols, but can also download files; HTTPS encrypts the session.

• TFTP = simple, unauthenticated file transfer
• FTP = file transfer with authentication, but not inherently encrypted
• SCP/SFTP = secure file transfer using SSH

1. Discovery tries the SSH probe first.
2. SSH fails.
3. Discovery tries SNMP, which succeeds.
4. Discovery records SNMP as the preferred service for that IP.
5. Future discoveries try SNMP first.

• Classification identifies the type of device, such as a server, router, or printer.
• Credential affinity remembers which credentials work for a device.
• MID Server affinity associates a device or network with a particular MID Server.
• IP service affinity specifically controls the preferred discovery protocol or service.

• Initial Intrusion: The compromised VPN account and stolen phishing credentials describe how the attacker first gained access, but that happened months earlier.
• Persistence: The scheduled tasks and recurring C2 connections show how the attacker maintained and automated continued access.
• Search and Exfiltration: This would involve locating and transferring data. The scenario does not primarily describe data discovery or theft.
• Cleanup: Cleanup involves removing evidence or covering tracks. Obfuscated scripts may make detection harder, but the main behavior here is maintaining access.

• Correct exam answer: A — HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
• The relevant location is associated with HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SAM.
• The SAM does not store passwords in plain text; it stores password hashes.

• HKEY_CURRENT_USER contains settings for the currently logged-in user, not the account-password database.
• HKEY_USERS contains user profiles and settings loaded for users.
• HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIGURATION contains hardware/profile configuration information.

• Windows 11 Pro ? Windows 11 Enterprise
• Windows 10 Pro ? Windows 10 Enterprise

• NAT traversal: Helps WAN Edge, vSmart, and vManage devices discover how to reach one another through NAT.
• Initial orchestration: Authenticates and introduces devices when they first join the SD-WAN fabric.
• Connection brokering: Provides information that allows devices to form their required control connections, after which the vBond is generally not in the data path.

• WAN Edge: Forwards user traffic and forms secure tunnels.
• vSmart: Controls the overlay control plane and distributes routes and policies.
• vManage: Provides centralized management, configuration, and monitoring.

• Explain questions from the exam page
• Check whether the stated answer is technically correct
• Compare answer choices and eliminate distractors
• Clarify Azure AI concepts and terminology
• Point out when an answer key appears unreliable or when an image is missing

• The Intune device limit restriction does not apply in the normal way; DEM enrollment supports up to 1,000 devices.
• However, the Microsoft Entra maximum number of devices per user setting can still impose a limit when the enrollment creates an Entra device object.
• Therefore, a DEM account is not automatically unlimited. The effective limit depends on the Entra device setting and the enrollment/join type.

• Marketing users: Dynamic Forms can show all fields.
• Support users: Field visibility rules can display only the Support preference fields on the record page.
• Reporting: Both profiles can still report on all fields because Dynamic Forms controls page visibility, not the underlying field access.

• A — Two record types and page layouts: Page layouts can control field placement and editability, but they are less flexible for conditional field visibility and would not be the best fit here.
• C — Muting permission set: Permission-set muting is used with permission-set groups; it does not conditionally hide fields on a page.
• D — Field-Level Security: FLS would remove field visibility at the security level. If fields are hidden by FLS, users generally cannot report on or access those fields, conflicting with the requirement that both users report on all data.

• 25 – Traditional SMTP server-to-server mail transfer; often blocked for client submission and not inherently secure.
• 110 – POP3 for receiving email; unencrypted by default.
• 143 – IMAP for accessing email; unencrypted by default.
• 587 – Authenticated email submission and commonly secured with TLS.

• Honeypots: Decoy systems designed to attract attackers. Legitimate users should not access them, so activity there is a strong indication of unauthorized access.
• DNS sinkholes: Redirect requests for known malicious domains to a controlled internal destination instead of the real attacker infrastructure. Security teams can then identify infected systems making those requests.

• Tokenization: Replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive tokens; it protects data but does not detect intruders.
• CI/CD: Software development and deployment processes.
• Threat modeling: Identifies potential threats before or during system design, rather than detecting successful infiltration.
• Data obfuscation: Makes information harder to understand, but is not an attacker-detection mechanism.

• Floating IP must be enabled on the load-balancing rule.
• Session persistence should normally remain None.
• The health probe determines which replica should receive traffic.
• Client-IP persistence is unnecessary and can cause connections from the same client to remain associated with a backend replica longer than intended.

• Q9 — Client IP session persistence: No
• Q10 — Floating IP: Yes

• Orders contains order-level information, such as the order date.
• Order Line Items contains the products, quantities, and line amounts associated with each order.
• Merging them on the order key, such as OrderID, places the order date alongside each line item. This allows you to calculate total order value and analyze it over time.
• Product attributes can remain in the Products table and be related to the resulting line-item table through ProductID.

• Merging line items with products addresses product attributes but does not first provide the order-level date and value needed for time analysis.
• DAX calculated columns or lists add unnecessary model complexity.
• Calculating order counts is not the first requirement and does not combine the required order and line-item data.

• Regression predicts continuous numeric outcomes, such as house price, temperature, or sales amount.
• Linear regression assumes the target can be estimated from a linear relationship between the input features and the target.
• In Azure Machine Learning, you use a labeled dataset containing:

• Classification predicts a category or class, such as “spam” or “not spam.”
• Clustering groups similar records without a known label; it is an unsupervised learning technique.

• Normal or expected input
• Boundary values
• Invalid input
• Potential error conditions

• A is incorrect: it creates test code, not detailed test documentation.
• C is incorrect: it does not primarily integrate external testing frameworks.
• D is incorrect: executing tests requires your development environment or test runner.

• Free: Doesn’t support the required custom domain and SSL configuration.
• Shared: Doesn’t provide the required SSL support or scalability.
• Basic: Supports multiple instances and SSL, but its storage limit is insufficient for the required 12 GB.
• Standard: Supports:

• Fine-tuning requires a properly formatted training dataset.
• For classification or instruction-style fine-tuning, examples are supplied in JSONL format.
• Each line represents one training example, typically containing the input prompt and the desired completion or label.
• The file must then be uploaded or made available to the Microsoft Foundry fine-tuning workflow.

• A: Prompt Flow is useful for prompt experimentation, but it is not required to start fine-tuning.
• B: You do not need to deploy the base model to an online endpoint before fine-tuning.
• C: Tracing supports observability and evaluation, but it does not prepare the fine-tuning job or dataset.

• API tool matcher: runs a deterministic normalization command after the API tool returns.
• Write/Edit matcher: checks whether the target path begins with src/api/ and runs the linter.

json 
{ 
  "hooks": { 
    "PostToolUse": [ 
      { 
        "matcher": "api_tool", 
        "hooks": [ 
          { "type": "command", "command": "normalize-to-snake-case" } 
        ] 
      }, 
      { 
        "matcher": "Write|Edit", 
        "hooks": [ 
          { "type": "command", "command": "lint-if-under-src-api" } 
        ] 
      } 
    ] 
  } 
}

• Constrained VMs: VMs whose workloads are experiencing resource pressure, such as insufficient CPU or memory. They may need additional resources or optimization.
• Overprovisioned VMs: VMs allocated more CPU, memory, or storage than their workloads require. Their resources may be reclaimed or reduced.

• Underprovisioned VMs: This is not the predefined view identified for this report question.
• Zombie VMs: These are typically inactive or unused VMs and are useful for cleanup, but they are not the two views specifically intended here to identify inefficient resource allocation.

• A — Increased call deflection: o KCS disponibiliza conhecimento reutilizável para clientes e agentes, ajudando a resolver dúvidas sem abrir ou continuar chamadas.
• C — Reduced issue resolution time: os representantes reutilizam artigos e soluções já documentadas, acelerando o atendimento.
• E — Optimized use of resources: o conhecimento compartilhado reduz retrabalho e melhora o uso dos recursos da equipe.

xml 
<apex:page> 
    <apex:stylesheet value="{!URLFOR($Resource.MyStyles, 'styles/main.css')}" /> 
</apex:page>

• <apex:includeScript> is for JavaScript.
• <apex:includeStyle> is not a valid Visualforce component.
• <apex:require> is not the Visualforce tag used to load CSS.

• Compute: Not used; no virtual warehouse is required.
• Data Storage: Not scanned again.
• Metadata: May help Snowflake manage and validate cached results, but it is not the Snowflake architectural layer identified as serving the request.
• Cloud Services: Handles query coordination, metadata services, authentication, and result-cache access.

• Red team: Simulates attackers and tests exploitability.
• Blue team: Defends, monitors, detects, and responds to attacks.
• Purple team: Combines red- and blue-team activities to improve cooperation and defenses.
• White team: Manages and oversees the rules, scope, and authorization of the exercise.

• Unsafe images: Requires image/content moderation before the image is processed.
• Hidden instructions embedded in images: These are indirect prompt injections contained in untrusted image content or extracted text, not necessarily in the user’s typed prompt.

• B — The most significant risks are held by SQ.

• C — SQ should recognise the cars as inventory.

• F — SQ recognises revenue when LM sells a car to a third party.

• A: LM does not hold the most significant risks.
• D: LM does not recognise the cars as inventory.
• E: SQ should not recognise revenue when cars are merely delivered to LM.

• Formatting: May remove file-system references but often leaves recoverable data.
• Degaussing: Uses a magnetic field to erase data, but can damage or make magnetic drives unusable.
• Defragmentation: Rearranges data for performance; it does not securely erase information.

• Business
• People
• Governance
• Platform
• Security
• Operations

• Sustainability
• Performance efficiency
• Reliability

• Accept: Acknowledges the risk without taking additional action.
• Transfer: Shifts the risk or financial impact to another party, such as an insurer.
• Mitigate: Reduces the likelihood or impact through controls like patching, MFA, or segmentation.
• Avoid: Eliminates the activity that creates the risk.

• Complete MFA, or
• Securely change their password

• Identity Protection: evaluates user and sign-in risk and can trigger remediation.
• Privileged Identity Management (PIM): manages temporary, just-in-time access to privileged roles; it does not automatically require password changes for risky sign-ins.

• Menerjemahkan soal ke bahasa Indonesia.
• Menyebutkan jawaban yang benar.
• Menjelaskan alasan jawaban tersebut.
• Memberi tahu jika kunci jawaban yang tersedia tampaknya keliru.
• Menjelaskan istilah teknis penting dalam soal.

• B — Sales staff will tender for riskier contracts:

• C — Sales staff will encroach on other territories:

• D — Sales staff will look for new jobs:

• Extracted text and images
• Page numbers and bounding polygons for citation or grounding
• Structured tables, including tables that continue across multiple pages
• Document structure such as sections and figures

• Document Extraction: Extracts basic text and images, but does not provide the full layout and structural metadata required here.
• Azure Content Understanding in Foundry Tools: A broader content-analysis service, not the single built-in Azure AI Search skill expected by this question.
• GenAI Prompt: Can transform or interpret content but does not inherently produce reliable document geometry and page-level polygons.

• Warehouse size: Larger warehouses use more credits per unit of time than smaller ones.
• Number of clusters: A multi-cluster warehouse can run multiple clusters, and each active cluster consumes credits. Therefore, increasing the maximum or active cluster count can increase consumption.

• Number of users: More users may cause more workload, but users themselves do not consume credits.
• Amount of data processed: Snowflake warehouses are not charged directly by the amount of data scanned. However, processing more data may cause the warehouse to run longer, indirectly increasing credits.

• Least privilege: Limits users to only the access necessary for their job.
• Background checks: Help identify potentially risky individuals before employment.
• Separation of duties: Ensures that one person cannot complete a sensitive process alone, reducing fraud and abuse.

• The users currently have Office 365 Enterprise E3 licenses assigned directly.
• Assigning Microsoft 365 Enterprise E5 through a group does not automatically remove their directly assigned E3 licenses.
• From the Licenses blade, you can select the E3 product and remove it from all assigned users in one operation. This requires less effort than editing 2,500 users individually.

• Identity Governance manages access reviews, entitlement management, and related governance—not bulk license removal.
• Set-AzureAdUser does not remove product licenses.
• Set-WindowsProductKey applies Windows product keys and is unrelated to Microsoft 365 licensing.

• Reconnaissance: Gathering information about the target.
• Weaponization: Creating or combining a malicious payload with a delivery method.
• Delivery: Sending the payload, such as through phishing.
• Exploitation: Triggering a vulnerability or weakness to gain execution or access.

• Suspended an operator who refused to use unsafe equipment.
• Paid another operator a bonus for using it.
• Prioritised short-term productivity over employee safety.

• A — Management is not particularly concerned with managing risks.

• B — Employees will perceive that management does not care about health and safety risks.

• C — The factory’s safety record is likely to be poor.

• A is correct: It establishes the revised dates and identifies the effect on the critical path.
• B is premature: Stakeholders should be informed after the impact has been assessed and the updated schedule is understood.
• C is not automatically appropriate: Fast-tracking may introduce additional risk and should be considered only after analyzing schedule options.
• D is premature: Adding resources may not resolve a dependency and could increase costs without addressing the actual constraint.

• A. IDS attack signatures: An IDS primarily detects suspicious network activity; it is not the best tool for scanning uploaded files.
• C. Load balancer: Improves availability and distributes traffic but does not inspect files for malware.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications against attacks such as SQL injection and command injection. It may inspect HTTP requests, but malware scanning of uploaded PDFs is the key requirement here.

• 24 cores: Available in the Business Critical provisioned-compute configurations.
• Approximately 124 GB memory: Matches the memory capacity of the relevant Business Critical hardware configuration.
• More than 50,000 IOPS: Business Critical uses local SSD storage and provides the high I/O performance required here.
• 500 GB storage: Well within the tier’s supported capacity.

• Premium: The DTU-based Premium tier does not provide the required combination of compute, memory, and I/O characteristics.
• Hyperscale: Hyperscale is primarily intended for very large databases and independent storage scaling. It is not the best match for these specific high-memory and high-IOPS requirements.