Salesforce ADX-201 Exam Prep
Administrative Essentials for New Admins in Lightning Experience (Page 26 )

• Help the team identify the root causes of delays.
• Empower the team to improve its workflow and practices.
• Facilitate removal of impediments.
• Avoid directing the team toward a solution without its involvement.
• Protect quality and sustainable delivery rather than simply accelerating everything.

• A: An impediment log may help, but merely recording problems does not empower the team to solve them.
• B: Directing the team to solutions conflicts with self-management.
• C: Adding impediments to the product backlog may incorrectly treat internal obstacles as product features and delays their resolution.

• Amazon S3 as the origin for static content
• Application Load Balancer (ALB) as the origin for dynamic content
• Amazon Route 53 configured to point the company’s domain name to CloudFront

• /static/* ? S3 origin; cache content at edge locations
• Dynamic paths such as /api/* ? ALB origin; forward requests to the EC2 application

1. Open the Microsoft Entra Connect wizard.
2. Select Configure.
3. Choose Customize synchronization options.
4. Authenticate when prompted.
5. On the Domain and OU filtering page, select:

1. Complete the wizard.

• Start-ADSyncSyncCycle only starts synchronization; it does not change which OUs are included.
• Manage federation configures federation settings, which are unrelated to OU filtering.
• Add-ADSyncConnectorAttributeInclusion concerns connector attributes, not selecting additional OUs for synchronization.

1. Search & Intelligence in the Microsoft 365 admin center — No

1. Audit in the Microsoft Defender portal — Yes

1. Audit in the Microsoft Purview portal — Yes

• A. Periodically rotate responsibilities: May reduce some risks, but it does not directly detect unauthorized changes.
• B. Review segregation-of-duties conflicts: Identifies incompatible access combinations, not whether a specific data change was unauthorized.
• C. Log changes in an outside application: Logs provide evidence, but someone must review and analyze them. Logging alone does not detect misuse.
• D. Independent review: Directly detects unauthorized changes and reduces the risk that the person making the change can conceal it.

• A is correct: It establishes the revised dates and identifies the effect on the critical path.
• B is premature: Stakeholders should be informed after the impact has been assessed and the updated schedule is understood.
• C is not automatically appropriate: Fast-tracking may introduce additional risk and should be considered only after analyzing schedule options.
• D is premature: Adding resources may not resolve a dependency and could increase costs without addressing the actual constraint.

• Firewall
• Intrusion prevention and detection
• Antivirus or antimalware
• Web and email filtering
• Virtual private networking (VPN)
• Sometimes content filtering and centralized reporting

• Job compute isolates production pipelines from interactive development and terminates after the job completes.
• Autoscaling adds and removes workers during telemetry spikes, directly addressing bursty workloads.
• Photon can improve performance and reduce processing time, but it does not provide autoscaling, schema-drift handling, or exactly-once processing by itself.

• A — Shared compute: violates production isolation and can allow development workloads to affect ingestion.
• C — Larger fixed cluster: may improve capacity but cannot adapt efficiently to changing workloads.
• D — Disable autoscaling: directly conflicts with the requirement to handle telemetry spikes.

• B — Sales staff will tender for riskier contracts:

• C — Sales staff will encroach on other territories:

• D — Sales staff will look for new jobs:

• B: Extending credit to customers increases receivables, so more cash is tied up in working capital.
• C: Replacing obsolete inventory does not reduce the overall inventory investment; it simply changes its composition.
• D: Paying suppliers earlier reduces payables. This uses cash and therefore increases the funds tied up in working capital.

• API tool matcher: runs a deterministic normalization command after the API tool returns.
• Write/Edit matcher: checks whether the target path begins with src/api/ and runs the linter.

json 
{ 
  "hooks": { 
    "PostToolUse": [ 
      { 
        "matcher": "api_tool", 
        "hooks": [ 
          { "type": "command", "command": "normalize-to-snake-case" } 
        ] 
      }, 
      { 
        "matcher": "Write|Edit", 
        "hooks": [ 
          { "type": "command", "command": "lint-if-under-src-api" } 
        ] 
      } 
    ] 
  } 
}

• Customize Opportunity Contact Role
• Add the Opportunity Contact Role related list to the Opportunity page layout

• No servers or database infrastructure to provision.
• Uses standard SQL.
• Supports formats such as JSON, CSV, Parquet, and ORC.
• You typically define the table structure with AWS Glue Data Catalog or Athena’s own schema definitions.
• Charges are generally based on the amount of data scanned, so partitioning and columnar formats can reduce cost.
• It does not copy the data into a separate database; it reads the files in S3 when you run a query.

• Default route: 0.0.0.0/0; used only when no more specific route exists.
• Network route: A route covering the destination, such as 10.10.13.0/24.
• Host route: An exact 10.10.13.10/32 entry in the routing table.
• Floating static route: A backup static route with a higher administrative distance.

• A. IDS attack signatures: An IDS primarily detects suspicious network activity; it is not the best tool for scanning uploaded files.
• C. Load balancer: Improves availability and distributes traffic but does not inspect files for malware.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications against attacks such as SQL injection and command injection. It may inspect HTTP requests, but malware scanning of uploaded PDFs is the key requirement here.

• Create a CodeCommit repository in the secondary Region.
• Use CodeBuild to run a Git mirror operation from the primary repository to the secondary repository.
• Use EventBridge to detect relevant repository events, such as a pull request being merged.
• Invoke a Lambda function, which starts the CodeBuild project.

• B: Amazon S3 is object storage, not a Git repository that developers can use as a CodeCommit remote.
• C: CodeArtifact is intended for packages and artifacts, not source-code repository mirroring.
• D: An AWS Cloud9 environment is not an appropriate automated replication mechanism and would require manual or persistent infrastructure management.

• Espionage: Stealing confidential information, often for a competitor or foreign entity.
• Data exfiltration: Unauthorized removal or transfer of data.
• Nation-state attack: A cyberattack sponsored or conducted by a government.
• Shadow IT: Unapproved technology or services used outside IT oversight.

• Floating IP must be enabled on the load-balancing rule.
• Session persistence should normally remain None.
• The health probe determines which replica should receive traffic.
• Client-IP persistence is unnecessary and can cause connections from the same client to remain associated with a backend replica longer than intended.

• Q9 — Client IP session persistence: No
• Q10 — Floating IP: Yes

• Identifies which user or department owns the device
• Supports inventory and compliance requirements
• Enables tracking of lost, stolen, retired, or unauthorized devices
• Helps enforce security controls such as mobile-device management and secure configuration

• B. Conditional access policies

• D. Additional authentication factors

• Disciplinary actions: Punish users but do not prevent credential-based attacks.
• More regular account audits: Useful for finding inactive or excessive accounts, but less direct for stopping unauthorized logins.
• Content filtering: Primarily controls web or email content, not authentication.
• Review of permissions: Reduces privilege but may not stop unauthorized account access.

• Due diligence: Researching and evaluating a third party before entering or continuing a business relationship.
• Internal audit: Evaluates controls within the organization itself.
• Penetration testing: Actively tests systems for exploitable vulnerabilities.
• Attestation: A formal statement or report—such as a SOC 2 report—provided by an independent party about an organization’s controls.

1. Create Workspace2 with Lakehouse2 — F
2. Migrate the Employee table to Lakehouse2 — E
3. Assign the data engineer the Contributor role for Workspace1 — D

Why

• Sharing Lakehouse1 would not provide the required isolation.
• Viewer access would not allow writing to Customer.
• Giving Contributor access to Workspace2 would expose the sensitive table.

• A: Describes an update-set conflict, not a Dictionary Override.
• B: Describes a configuration item or change concept.
• C: Describes an approval or workflow activity.

1. Append Table1 and Table2 as a new query

1. Select the product column in the appended query.

1. Choose Remove Rows > Remove Duplicates

• When the MVP will be defined — the MVP should already be understood sufficiently when assessing the business case.
• What the MVP is — useful information, but not the key requirement tested here.
• That the MVP is the same as project viability — incorrect. The MVP helps test viability; it is not identical to viability itself.

• Virtual introductions: Team members share their role, experience, location, and working preferences.
• Online icebreakers: Short, informal activities such as “two truths and a lie.”
• Virtual coffee chats: Pair team members for informal, non-project conversations.
• Collaborative problem-solving: The team works together on an online puzzle or scenario.
• Retrospectives: The team discusses what went well, what did not, and how to improve.
• Working-agreement sessions: The team agrees on response times, meeting etiquette, communication channels, and handoffs.
• Recognition sessions: Members acknowledge one another’s contributions.
• Remote workshops: Teams jointly create plans, diagrams, or schedules using collaboration tools.

• Filtering harmful or inappropriate content
• Blocking specified topics
• Detecting and masking sensitive information
• Enforcing content policies suitable for children

• Amazon Rekognition analyzes images and videos; it does not control text generated by a language model.
• Amazon Bedrock playgrounds are for testing models and prompts, not enforcing production safety policies.
• Agents for Amazon Bedrock help models complete tasks and use tools; they do not primarily provide content-safety controls.

• Vulnerability scanner: Finds known technical weaknesses in systems or applications, but does not provide complete supply-chain visibility.
• Penetration test: Simulates attacks against defined targets; it is narrower than a full supply-chain analysis.
• SCAP: A set of standards and protocols for automated security configuration and vulnerability assessment, not a comprehensive supply-chain mapping tool.

• Complex inputs: A queueable job can accept and retain complex data such as Map<Id, Project__c> and List<Account>.
• Callouts: The class should implement both:

apex 
  public class ProjectJob implements Queueable, Database.AllowsCallouts { 
      // execute method 
  }

• Execution confirmation: System.enqueueJob() returns an AsyncApexJob ID. You can use that ID to query job status and confirm whether the job completed successfully.

• @future(callout=true) supports callouts, but future methods have more restrictive parameter types and return no job ID for tracking.
• Database.AllowsCallouts is only an interface that permits callouts; it is not an asynchronous mechanism by itself.
• Schedulable is intended for jobs that run at a scheduled time, not primarily for submitting a long-running asynchronous operation.

• Internal audit: Reviews the organization’s own controls and processes.
• Penetration testing: Actively tests systems for exploitable vulnerabilities.
• Attestation: A SOC 2 report is an attestation product issued by an independent auditor, but the analyst is not performing the attestation. They are reviewing it as part of vendor evaluation.

• Type 1 hypervisor: Runs directly on the physical hardware (“bare metal”).
• Type 2 hypervisor: Runs inside the host OS as an application.

• Bare-metal installation: Type 1
• Local management only: Not a defining characteristic
• Specific hardware requirements: Not the key distinction

• Something you know: Password or PIN
• Something you have: Security token, smart card, or phone receiving an authentication code
• Something you are: Fingerprint or facial recognition
• Somewhere you are: Location-based verification

• Injection
• Broken access control
• Authentication failures
• Security misconfiguration
• Cross-site scripting

• STIX: A standardized language and format for exchanging threat intelligence.
• OVAL: Used to describe and assess system vulnerabilities and configuration issues.
• Threat intelligence feed: Provides current indicators and intelligence about threats, but not necessarily a structured overview of common application exploitation methods.
• CVE: A catalog of individually identified, publicly disclosed vulnerabilities.

• D — Managers focus on keeping costs low in the short term to maximise profits.

• E — Managers are given incentives to meet or undercut budgets.

• F — Managers delegate responsibility simply to reduce their workload.

• Technical platform interfaces: Important for integration and interoperability, but they should support—not drive—the architecture.
• Scalability of the network: Valuable as the organization grows, but a scalable solution is ineffective if it does not meet business or security needs.
• Development methodologies: Relevant to implementation, but they do not define the organization’s fundamental security requirements.

1. Yes — Microsoft Foundry provides a secure, governed environment for building and managing generative AI applications and agents. It brings together models, data, tools, evaluation, deployment, and monitoring.

1. Yes — Foundry is designed for enterprise workloads and supports scaling AI applications as usage grows. Scalability comes from the underlying Azure services and managed infrastructure.

1. Yes — Foundry can be used in solutions involving image recognition and computer vision. Applications can use vision-capable models and Azure AI vision capabilities for tasks such as image analysis, object detection, and OCR.

• Security controls
• Processes and procedures
• Compliance evidence
• Performance against contractual requirements

• Service-level agreement (SLA): Defines expected service performance, such as uptime and response times.
• Memorandum of agreement (MOA): Documents a general agreement between parties, but does not necessarily provide audit rights.
• Supply chain analysis: Identifies risks across suppliers and dependencies, but is not a contractual mechanism for reviewing vendor controls.

• Virus signatures: Primarily associated with antivirus or antimalware tools.
• Security agent deployment: Usually handled by endpoint-management or endpoint-security platforms.
• Vulnerability scanning: Performed by vulnerability-assessment tools, although a SIEM may ingest their results.

• Configure row-level security (RLS) using the sales region and the HR manager’s identity.
• Publish the reports and datasets through a Power BI app.
• Grant the HR managers permission to use the app, but do not add them as workspace members.
• App users can view and interact with reports while RLS limits them to their region.
• They cannot modify the report layout because they do not have workspace editing permissions.

• Adding them to the workspace gives them workspace permissions that may allow report or dataset changes, depending on the assigned role.
• Creating copies is unnecessary and creates maintenance and security problems.
• Hosting datasets and reports in different workspaces does not, by itself, provide the required controlled access.

• Product recall: Premature before confirming a violation or assessing risk.
• Notify the regulatory authority: May be required later, especially if the discrepancy affects safety or compliance, but first investigate and verify the facts.
• Inform production: Not the initial regulatory assessment step; production may become involved if a packaging or manufacturing error is identified.

• Deterrent control: The signs warning that people may be filmed can discourage unauthorized or malicious activity. They do not directly stop the action; they influence behavior.
• Detective control: CCTV records or monitors activity so security personnel can identify events or investigate them afterward.

• Preventive: Stops an incident from occurring, such as access control.
• Corrective: Restores systems after an incident.
• Directive: Instructs people to behave in a certain way, such as a security policy.
• Compensating: An alternative control used when the preferred control is not feasible.

• Verifies the sender’s identity using their private key.
• Confirms the transaction was not altered after signing.
• Provides evidence that the signer approved or originated the transaction.

• Digital certificates: Bind an identity to a public key, but do not themselves prove that a specific transaction was signed.
• Encrypted passwords: Protect confidentiality or authentication, but generally do not provide transaction-level nonrepudiation.
• One-time passwords: Authenticate a user for a session or transaction, but usually do not provide durable proof of who authorized the electronic record.

• Microsoft Foundry is an enterprise platform for developers, data scientists, and IT teams.
• It supports the full AI application lifecycle: selecting models, connecting enterprise data, developing, evaluating, deploying, monitoring, and scaling solutions.
• It can include visual tools and low-code experiences, but it is not primarily designed to enable business users to build complete generative AI solutions independently.

• B: You still need to select and configure an appropriate model.
• C: Business users may participate through visual tools, but they are not the primary target audience.
• D: Foundry includes low-code tools, but it is not fundamentally a low-code-only platform.

• Document feeder: A scratch, dirt, or debris on the feeder glass or rollers can create a line on every scanned image.
• Pickup rollers: Move paper through the printer; they would not normally create a scanner-only line.
• Corona wire: Affects toner charging and would cause defects on printed output.
• Drum assembly: Also affects printed pages, so faxes and computer print jobs would show the line too.

• Future costs — Only costs occurring in the future can be affected by the investment decision. Past costs are sunk and irrelevant.
• Incremental costs — These are additional costs caused by choosing the investment. They are relevant because they differ between alternatives.
• Cash flows — Capital investment decisions are based on future cash inflows and outflows, usually discounted to present value.

• Committed costs have already been agreed or incurred and generally cannot be changed by the decision.
• Unavoidable costs will arise regardless of which option is selected, so they do not affect the choice.

• A: CEO-sponsored formal policy — demonstrates executive support, but sponsorship at one point in time may not sustain commitment.
• B: Security awareness training — primarily improves employee behavior, not senior management commitment.
• C: Periodic alignment reviews — ongoing reviews show that security remains relevant, supports business priorities, and uses resources appropriately.
• D: Senior management signoff on the strategy — useful for governance and accountability, but signoff is generally a one-time event.

• Additional running costs: $800
• Less depreciation: $300

• The $100 reduction in fixed production overhead absorbed is only an accounting reallocation. It does not represent an actual saving in total fixed overhead.

• A is incorrect: Flow Debugger is for debugging Salesforce Flows, not Trust Layer masking.
• B is incomplete/misleading: Requesting audit data may be part of reviewing the results, but collection and storage must first be enabled.
• C is correct: It describes the initial validation step.

• The users currently have Office 365 Enterprise E3 licenses assigned directly.
• Assigning Microsoft 365 Enterprise E5 through a group does not automatically remove their directly assigned E3 licenses.
• From the Licenses blade, you can select the E3 product and remove it from all assigned users in one operation. This requires less effort than editing 2,500 users individually.

• Identity Governance manages access reviews, entitlement management, and related governance—not bulk license removal.
• Set-AzureAdUser does not remove product licenses.
• Set-WindowsProductKey applies Windows product keys and is unrelated to Microsoft 365 licensing.

• CHAP: Uses a challenge-response exchange, so the password is not directly transmitted.
• IPsec: Provides authentication, integrity, and encryption for IP communications.
• EAP: An authentication framework that supports stronger methods, such as certificates or token-based authentication.