StudyGrind99 on: August 13, 2026
This exam was tough but the practice questions on this website made it way less scary. Glad I used it to prepare.
Norway

itdadof3 on: July 08, 2026
After long workdays sneaking in short study sessions was my only option for this exam. Glad those practice questions from the site mirrored the real deal and I'm finally done with it.
Rwanda

miguelcloudops on: July 14, 2026
Crammed with this website it saved me time and some money but exam was tough still passed in the end.
Indonesia

Nathi on: September 03, 2026
very useful
Midrand, South Africa

ahmedcertkings on: July 08, 2026
I took my time with this cert and the progress felt slow. These questions helped me review everything well so in the end I passed.
United States

Bitmask on: August 05, 2026
Questions here? Life saver for tough exam.
Italy

brendannetadmin on: June 20, 2026
The progress was slow at first with this exam but the practice questions made review easier. In the end I passed.
Singapore

Microcode on: July 27, 2026
Crammed last minute but saved time and cash thanks to relevant questions helped me pass.
Finland

JuniperJeff on: June 29, 2026
I crammed through this site to save both time and money but got through the test pretty slowly.
United Kingdom

VMwareVince on: August 09, 2026
Balancing work and studying for this exam was tough so I only managed short bursts of prep during lunch breaks. Finishing it felt like such a huge relief like a weight lifted off my shoulders.
Chile

tryhardtechie on: July 20, 2026
Man this exam covered way more than I thought. The AI assistant on this site really helped me understand the stuff I missed.
Japan

bootcampgradb on: July 02, 2026
This exam was super hard but the practice questions here got me through it.
Malaysia

netgurusteve on: August 06, 2026
Balancing work and short study sessions wasn't easy but I made it happen. Super relieved to pass the exam with some help from this site's AI assistant.
Mexico

CyberArkC on: July 09, 2026
Took me forever to get through these practice questions but they’re really helpful in the end. Managed to review everything and passed eventually.
Japan

mateusawsbr on: June 18, 2026
The exam was tougher than I thought and it had a lot of stuff not in my study notes. Luckily the AI assistant on this site helped fill some gaps with its tips and insights.
Lithuania

SecOpsGuy on: July 31, 2026
Crammed hard with this site's questions and saved some time and money getting through the exam slowly but surely.
Colombia

justanothertechguy on: June 11, 2026
This exam had more topics than I thought it would cover and threw me off a bit. But the AI assistant on this site helped clear up some confusing areas.
UAE

scriptsandcerts on: August 13, 2026
The exam was so stressful but practice questions made me confident. I’m glad it's over now.
Vietnam

kenjinetops on: May 30, 2026
I was saving time and money cramming with this website's stuff so eventually passed the exam.
Chile

lenaciscolab on: July 17, 2026
Long hours at work made study sessions feel impossible but this website's materials kept it manageable. Passing the exam lifted a massive weight off my shoulders.
Thailand

weekendwarriorw on: June 18, 2026
At first I was not confident but using the practice questions on this website helped me a lot.
Argentina

pivottocloudp on: June 23, 2026
The exam was tougher than I thought but definitely doable with the help of this website's practice questions.
China

anyacloudarch on: June 06, 2026
I moved through the prep slowly at first but reviewing helped a lot. Took me some time but those practice questions on this site made things clear and I passed the exam eventually.
Taiwan

amaraitpro on: August 09, 2026
This exam had way more than I thought it would. The AI assistant on this site was pretty handy though in understanding some tricky parts.
Germany

RedHatRick on: July 05, 2026
Trying to fit in study time for this cert between work was tough. But once I started hitting relevant questions on the site it made things a bit easier and I'm glad it's finally done.
Argentina

CoffeeAndCerts on: July 22, 2026
This exam was tougher than I thought but with some practice questions it's doable.
Lithuania

ahmedcertkings on: July 16, 2026
This exam was pretty tough but the prep questions on this website helped me a lot to pass.
France

PaperCCNA on: August 03, 2026
At first not so confident but practice questions here helped me prepare better for this exam.
Israel

Payload on: August 31, 2026
This cert was harder but doable.
United Kingdom

nightstudyguy on: July 08, 2026
At first felt shaky about the exam but practice questions here really helped to understand better.
United States

TerraformTom on: July 21, 2026
Felt super lost at first but the practice questions here got me back on track.
Mexico

nightstudyguy on: July 06, 2026
This exam was tough but the practice questions on this site definitely helped me pass.
Philippines

gitadataeng on: July 04, 2026
The exam was tougher than I thought but the practice questions helped make it doable.
Nigeria

selftaughtsam on: July 13, 2026
This exam was pretty tough but the prep questions on this site definitely helped me pass.
Israel

MultiCloudMo on: July 07, 2026
I was moving slow at first but then made time to review carefully. The practice questions really helped me focus. Eventually passed the exam with confidence.
Austria

Scsi on: August 16, 2026
Crammed with practice questions here it helped me pass even though it took time.
Spain

alicloudsa on: July 23, 2026
The exam was tough but this site’s practice questions were a big help to get me through it.
Qatar

nerdbyday on: July 10, 2026
This exam was rough but the prep questions on this website really helped me get through it.
United States

Patchset on: August 17, 2026
Took me forever to get through but review time paid off.
Spain

Jagadeesh on: August 31, 2026
I am happy with this
Hyderabad, India

9to5andstudy on: July 12, 2026
The exam was tough but the practice questions here were spot on and really helped me pass.
Switzerland

Sshd on: July 31, 2026
At first I wasn't too confident but those practice questions really helped me get there.
Luxembourg

alwayslearninga on: July 27, 2026
The exam was tougher than I thought but the practice questions here helped me manage it.
Switzerland

selftaughtsam on: July 04, 2026
Progress was slow at first with these questions but it got better. I took more time reviewing stuff than expected. Passed the exam in the end though.
Japan

TheCertMachine on: July 14, 2026
Between work and study sessions for this exam I was burning out quick. Finally passing it feels like a massive weight lifted off my shoulders.
Colombia

miket2024 on: July 22, 2026
Man this exam was way more detailed than I planned for and felt a bit blindsided. But the AI assistant on this site really helped with some tricky areas to get me through it.
Hong Kong

CertHunter on: August 05, 2026
Wasn't expecting this exam to cover so much stuff it threw me off. The AI assistant on this site really helped fill in the gaps though.
Japan

miket2024 on: July 18, 2026
I thought I was prepared but the exam covered way more stuff than expected and felt tough. The AI assistant on this site actually helped a lot though with clarifying things I wasn't sure about.
Hong Kong

CoffeeAndCerts on: May 21, 2026
This exam had way more unexpected stuff than I thought it would have. But the AI assistant on this site was super helpful with clarifying the prep material when I needed it.
Pakistan

SnowflakeSteve on: June 06, 2026
Juggling work and cramming for this exam was no fun but the practice questions on this website helped when I only had 10 minutes here or there. Finally passing felt like taking a backpack of rocks off my shoulders.
United Kingdom

AI Explanation - verified by User9935 on: August 31, 2026
Question 8:
The answer key appears incorrect. The stronger answer is A, D, and E.

A — Correct: Flow Builder is declarative and visual, so administrators and other non-developers can participate in designing and improving business processes without writing Apex.

D — Correct: Flow Builder provides visual debugging tools, allowing an admin to test paths, inspect variable values, and identify where a specific business case fails.

E — Correct: A flow’s visual structure documents the logic and makes later maintenance easier than reading and updating custom Apex code.

Why the key’s B is problematic:

B — Incorrect: Flow debugging does not attach a debugger to live customer sessions. The admin uses Flow Builder’s debug functionality with test inputs; this is not live-session debugging and should not be used to monitor real customer transactions.

C is also incorrect because Flow Builder does not automatically notify an admin that a third-party integration’s data interface has changed. Such monitoring requires integration controls or external processes.
Evora, Portugal

AI Explanation - verified by User5651 on: September 01, 2026
Question 23:
Correct answer: D. Version control
Version control tracks changes made to a document over time. It can identify:

The current and previous versions

Which clauses were changed

When each revision occurred

Potentially, who made the changes

This is important for contracts because it prevents confusion about which revision is authoritative and provides an audit trail.
Why the others are incorrect:

Version validation: Verifies a version’s accuracy or integrity but does not primarily track revisions.

Version changes: Not the standard name for a formal document-management process.

Version updates: Describes updating a document, not the complete process of managing and tracking its revisions.

The key clue is “track revisions,” which directly indicates version control.
Dundalk, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User3361 on: August 31, 2026
Question 1:
Correct answer: B. Transfer
Cyber insurance shifts some of the financial impact of risk to another party—the insurance provider. The company still has the underlying cybersecurity risk, but the insurer helps cover costs if a specified incident occurs.

Accept: Acknowledging the risk without taking additional action.

Transfer: Shifting the risk’s impact to a third party, such as through insurance or outsourcing.

Mitigate: Reducing the likelihood or impact of the risk through security controls.

Avoid: Eliminating the activity or process that creates the risk.

Because the company purchased insurance to address risks already listed in its risk register, this is a risk-transfer strategy.
Biloxi, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User4094 on: August 23, 2026
Question 12:
The answer key B and D appears incorrect. The best answer is A:
Customer Community Plus for Regional Leads and External Identity for Capacity Planners.

Regional leads — Customer Community Plus

- Need access to Cases to report damaged goods. - Need access to reports and dashboards for regional shipping KPIs. - Customer Community Plus is designed for external users who need enhanced reporting and dashboard capabilities.

Capacity planners — External Identity

- They only need to authenticate to the third-party analytics tool. - They do not need access to Salesforce records or community functionality. - An External Identity license supports external users authenticating through Salesforce as an identity provider for other applications.
Why the key’s choices are problematic:

Customer Community does not provide the enhanced reporting/dashboard access required by regional leads.

An Identity license is generally for internal Salesforce identity use and does not fit the external capacity-planning users as well as External Identity.

Zagreb, Croatia

AI Explanation - verified by User9431 on: August 25, 2026
Question 17:
Correct answer: B — Enabling malware detection through a UTM
A public file-upload feature creates a risk that users will upload malicious documents, including PDFs containing malware or exploit code. A unified threat management (UTM) appliance can include antivirus and malware-scanning capabilities that inspect files as they pass through the network perimeter.
Why the others are less suitable:

A. IDS attack signatures: An IDS primarily detects suspicious network activity and usually does not provide dedicated file-upload malware scanning. It is generally detective rather than preventive.

C. Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers and improves availability; it does not inspect documents for malware.

D. WAF: Helps block web-application attacks such as SQL injection, command injection, and XSS. Although a WAF may inspect upload requests, malware detection in PDF files is more directly addressed by antivirus or content-scanning functionality.

In practice, the company should also validate file types, restrict file size, scan uploads, store them separately from executable content, and consider sandboxing.
Seattle, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User1676 on: August 18, 2026
Question 37:
The answer key shows A (Apex Trigger), but I believe the best answer is B: Build a Flow on Opportunity.

Create a record-triggered Flow on Opportunity.

Run it when the record is created or updated.

Add entry criteria such as Probability > 50%.

Use Create Records to create the related Sales Demo Request, populating its Opportunity lookup.

Why not the other options?

Apex Trigger: Possible, but unnecessary custom code for a straightforward automation requirement.

Workflow Rule: Cannot create a related custom record.

Process Builder: Could create a record, but Flow is Salesforce’s preferred and more capable declarative automation tool.

The Flow should also be designed to avoid creating duplicate Sales Demo Requests—for example, by checking whether one already exists or by using an appropriate triggering condition.
Nagpur, India

AI Explanation - verified by francis4fnc on: August 25, 2026
Question 2:
Correct answer: D.
Apply a temporary explicit Deny in the S3 bucket policy for s3:GetObject on the bucket’s object resources:

json "Resource": "arn:aws:s3:::bucket-name/*"

This immediately prevents further object downloads, including downloads made with the attacker’s already-issued temporary credentials. The policy can be removed or narrowed after the development team deploys the fix.
Why the others are weaker:

A: Revoking or changing an instance profile does not reliably invalidate temporary credentials that have already been issued and may still be valid.

B: Changing the EC2 security group does not necessarily stop the attacker from using the stolen credentials from elsewhere.

C: Amazon Macie helps discover sensitive data; Object Lock prevents modification/deletion, not reads or downloads.

The bucket policy will also block legitimate reads temporarily, so the security engineer should scope the denial carefully and document the emergency change.
Lagos, Nigeria

AI Explanation - verified by User6989 on: August 28, 2026
Question 20:
Correct answer: D — tracert.
tracert (Windows) displays the hops between the client and the web application. By examining the first hop or ISP-related hops, the technician can determine which internet link the traffic is using.
Why the others are incorrect:

netstat: Shows local network connections and listening ports, but not which WAN path carries the traffic.

nslookup: Resolves domain names to IP addresses.

ping: Tests reachability and latency but does not show the route.

In real networks, load balancing or asymmetric routing can make this less definitive, but for this exam scenario, tracert is the best choice.
Johannesburg, South Africa

AI Explanation - verified by User9060 on: August 24, 2026
Question 21:
Correct answer: A — If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative power value, the port is shut down and placed in err-disabled state.
With PoE power monitoring and policing, the switch compares the power drawn by the connected powered device (PD) against the port’s configured or default maximum administrative power.
If consumption exceeds that limit, the switch:

Generates a syslog message

Shuts down the PoE port

Places the port into error-disabled (err-disabled) state

Frees the power allocation

The other statements are incorrect:

A device starting to draw power does not necessarily generate a syslog message.

Monitoring does not pause data traffic while checking power.

Drawing less than the configured minimum does not automatically mean the device has failed and should be disconnected.

The key exam concept is: exceeding the administrative PoE power limit triggers shutdown and err-disabled.
Johannesburg, South Africa

AI Explanation - verified by User8074 on: August 29, 2026
Question 36:
Correct answer: B — Performing code obfuscation
Code obfuscation changes source or compiled code into a form that is difficult for humans to read and understand while preserving its functionality. It can rename variables, restructure logic, or encode strings, making reverse engineering more difficult.
Why the other choices are less suitable:

Digitally signing the software: Verifies authenticity and integrity. It does not hide how the software works.

Limiting third-party libraries: May reduce dependencies and attack surface, but does not directly prevent reverse engineering.

Using compile flags: Some compiler options can remove debugging information or optimize code, which may provide limited protection, but this is not the primary technique identified for preventing reverse engineering.

Obfuscation is not perfect protection—determined attackers may still analyze the program—but it raises the difficulty and cost of doing so.
Weston, Canada

AI Explanation - verified by User1466 on: August 19, 2026
Question 13:
For question 13, the correct completion is:

sql GRANT ALTER ON SCHEMA::schemaA TO User1;

Why:

TRUNCATE TABLE is a DDL operation, not a normal DELETE.

Having DELETE permission on a table is not sufficient to truncate it.

The minimum relevant permission is ALTER on the table.

Granting ALTER on SCHEMA::schemaA allows the user to truncate tables within schemaA.

It does not grant equivalent permissions on schemaB or schemaC, satisfying least privilege.

The answer key’s ALTER and SCHEMA::schemaA are therefore correct.
Wotton-Under-Edge, United Kingdom

AI Explanation - verified by User8774 on: September 03, 2026
Question 12:
Correct answer: B — Port security
A MAC flooding attack sends many fake source MAC addresses to a switch. The goal is to overwhelm the switch’s MAC address table, potentially causing it to behave like a hub and forward traffic out multiple ports.
Port security mitigates this by limiting which and how many MAC addresses are allowed on a switch port. It can:

Restrict a port to a defined number of MAC addresses

Use statically configured or “sticky” MAC addresses

Shut down or restrict the port when violations occur

Why the other options are less appropriate:

Load balancer: Distributes application traffic; it does not protect switch MAC tables.

IPS: May detect suspicious traffic but is not the primary control for switch-port MAC limits.

NGFW: Filters routed network traffic, not the switch’s CAM/MAC address table directly.

Reston, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User8112 on: August 31, 2026
Question 48:
Correct answer: DirectQuery
The requirement is for Model1 to show changes from Azure SQL DB1 within two minutes. DirectQuery keeps the data in the source database and sends queries to Azure SQL when users interact with the report, so recent updates can be reflected without waiting for a full import refresh.
Why the others are incorrect:

Import: Copies data into the Power BI model. It requires scheduled or manual refresh, so it may not meet the two-minute requirement.

Live connection: Connects to an existing Power BI semantic model or Analysis Services model; it is not the appropriate choice for connecting directly to the Azure SQL database in this scenario.

DirectQuery can have performance limitations because queries are executed against the source system at report-view time.
Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia

AI Explanation - verified by kowshik.h on: August 25, 2026
Question 1:
Correct answer: C — Detect events where principal.port is 5555.
In Google SecOps UDM:

principal represents the source or initiating system.

principal.port is the source port.

target represents the destination system.

target.port is the destination port.

Because the question asks for traffic originating from the server running the backdoor, filter on:

text principal.port = 5555

Why the other options are weaker:

network.ApplicationProtocol = HTTP identifies HTTP traffic but not the backdoor specifically.

target.port = 5555 finds traffic going to port 5555, rather than originating from it.

network.ip_protocol = TCP is too broad because many services use TCP.

The key exam distinction is source/principal versus destination/target.
Bengaluru, India

AI Explanation - verified by User3451 on: September 03, 2026
Question 17:
Correct answer: B — Unsupervised learning.
The customer data is unlabeled, meaning there are no predefined tier labels such as “premium,” “standard,” or “basic.” Unsupervised learning can analyze the data and identify natural groups based on similarities, such as purchase history, spending, or engagement. The company can then assign those groups to advertising tiers.
Why the other options are incorrect:

Supervised learning requires labeled examples to learn how to classify customers.

Reinforcement learning learns through actions, rewards, and penalties, which is not the main task here.

RLHF uses human feedback to improve model behavior, typically for generative AI, not customer segmentation.

The key clue is “unlabeled customer data” combined with grouping customers into tiers.
Bengaluru, India

AI Explanation - verified by User3316 on: August 25, 2026
Question 39:
Question 39: Yes. The answer key shows A, and this is correct.
The issue is that the source is case-sensitive, while Power BI may treat text values with different casing as equivalent. For example, ABC and abc could be separate source values but collide in the semantic model, causing undefined values or errors.
This solution addresses both concerns:

Normalize casing in the data source—for example, convert all values to uppercase or lowercase.

Add an index key to provide a unique, stable identifier for each row or value.

The normalized column avoids case-related matching conflicts, while the index key prevents ambiguity if different original values become identical after normalization. This is especially useful for relationships and DirectQuery operations.
Bengaluru, India

AI Explanation - verified by swetatiwari7 on: August 20, 2026
Question 116:
Question 116 answer:

A. A virtual network gateway

D. A virtual network

Why:

Azure virtual machines must be connected to an Azure virtual network (VNet). The VNet provides private IP addressing and network connectivity for the VMs.

A virtual network gateway enables communication between the Azure VNet and the on-premises network, typically through a site-to-site VPN or ExpressRoute connection.

Why the others are incorrect:

Load balancer: Distributes traffic among Azure VMs; it does not connect Azure to an on-premises network.

Application gateway: Provides web-application load balancing and Layer 7 routing; it is not the normal resource for on-premises connectivity.

Gateway subnet: A gateway subnet is required inside the VNet when deploying a virtual network gateway, but the question’s intended two primary resources are the VNet and virtual network gateway.

Pune, India

AI Explanation - verified by User4279 on: August 18, 2026
Jusy read questions and answers in english
I’ve read the questions and answers in English.
Bengaluru, India

AI Explanation - verified by User4094 on: August 26, 2026
Question 21:
Question 21: Answer D — Confirm performance considerations with Salesforce Customer Support due to high peaks.
The key detail is the requirement for more than 1,000 logins per minute. Even if the identity architecture is technically valid, that login volume may exceed normal platform limits or require capacity planning. The architect should validate the design and expected peak load with Salesforce before implementation.
Why the other options are weaker:

A: Using an external OAuth 2.0 identity provider could provide unified identity, but it does not specifically address Salesforce capacity or high-volume login limits.

B: Making the Experience Cloud community a SAML identity provider and using JIT provisioning is a possible federation pattern, but it may not be appropriate for this scale without Salesforce validation.

C: A default account is unrelated to solving identity unification and high login throughput. Person Accounts can be supported in appropriate B2C Commerce integrations.

The exam focus is recognizing that high authentication peaks require performance and limit validation with Salesforce, making D the best answer.
Zagreb, Croatia

AI Explanation - verified by User4094 on: August 26, 2026
Question 15:
Correct answer: C — The identity provider is correctly preserving the RelayState.
When a user clicks a Salesforce case link and is redirected to SAML SSO, Salesforce includes the original destination in the RelayState parameter. The identity provider must return that value unchanged in the SAML response.
If RelayState is lost, altered, or ignored, Salesforce completes authentication but has no information about the originally requested Case URL, so it typically sends the user to the Salesforce home page.
Why the others are less likely:

A: My Domain is required for many SSO configurations, but if SSO works, it is unlikely to be the cause of losing the target record.

B: HTTP-POST is a valid SAML binding and does not inherently prevent redirection.

D: An incorrect Federation ID generally causes authentication or user-matching failure—not successful login to the home page.

Zagreb, Croatia

AI Explanation - verified by mphaladijd on: August 16, 2026
corect answer is bde
You’re right—B, D, and E are the intended correct choices. The page formatting appears to have split the answer options incorrectly.

B — Increase provisioned concurrency for Lambda

Provisioned concurrency keeps Lambda execution environments initialized, reducing cold-start latency during the initial request burst.

D — Refactor the Lambda functions

Database connection initialization should be moved outside the function handler, so warm execution environments can reuse connections. The page text appears to say “into” the handlers, which would be counterproductive and is likely a formatting/transcription error.

E — Use Amazon RDS Proxy

RDS Proxy pools and reuses database connections. This prevents a burst of Lambda invocations from opening many separate connections to Aurora and reduces connection overhead.
Reserved concurrency controls the maximum number of concurrent invocations but does not eliminate cold starts or database connection overhead. Aurora Global Database and cross-Region replicas are not needed for this latency/scalability issue.
Pretoria, South Africa

AI Explanation - verified by User1782 on: August 31, 2026
Question 101:
Correct answer: A. Data architecture
The AWS Cloud Adoption Framework (AWS CAF) platform perspective focuses on building and managing the technical foundation of the cloud, including:

Cloud architecture

Data architecture

Platform engineering

Data engineering

Provisioning and modernization

Why the others are less suitable:

Data protection is associated mainly with security and risk management.

Data governance belongs to the governance perspective.

Data science is not an AWS CAF capability.

The key distinction is that data architecture describes how data stores, pipelines, and data systems are designed as part of the cloud platform.
Gurugram, India

AI Explanation - verified by User2745 on: August 31, 2026
Question 12:
Correct answer: B — AWS Service Catalog
AWS Service Catalog lets organizations:

Create and manage approved IT services as products

Control which users can deploy those products

Apply governance, permissions, and constraints

Use and manage infrastructure-as-code templates, such as AWS CloudFormation templates

Why the others are incorrect:

AWS Resource Explorer: Helps find and browse AWS resources; it does not govern IaC deployments.

AWS Organizations: Manages accounts, consolidated billing, and organization-wide policies.

AWS Systems Manager: Provides operational management, such as patching, automation, and parameter storage, but it is not primarily used to catalog and govern IaC-based service deployments.

The key clue is “manage deployed IT services” and “govern infrastructure as code templates.” That combination points to AWS Service Catalog.
Indore, India

AI Explanation - verified by User6709 on: August 25, 2026
Question 2:
Correct answer: Dataverse
Power Apps applications hosted in Microsoft Teams commonly use Microsoft Dataverse for Teams to store and manage their data. In Power BI, use the Dataverse connector to connect to that data and build the report.
Why the others are incorrect:

Microsoft Teams: Connects to Teams-related data, but it isn’t the primary connector for the Power Apps data tables.

Personal Analytics: Provides personal productivity insights, not application data.

SQL Server database: Only applies if the app explicitly uses SQL Server as its data source.

Dataflows: Used for preparing and centralizing data, not as the normal direct connection to a Power Apps app.

The key distinction is that Teams is only the hosting environment. The application’s data is stored in Dataverse, so select the Dataverse connector.
Perth, Australia

AI Explanation - verified by User9964 on: August 24, 2026
Question 44:
Correct answer: Elasticity
App1 has:

Low usage during the first three weeks

Very high usage during the last week

Elasticity means automatically increasing or decreasing cloud resources as demand changes. For example, Azure can add compute instances during the busy period and remove them when demand falls.
This helps control costs because the company does not continuously pay for peak capacity when usage is low.
Why the others are incorrect:

High availability: Keeps services running despite failures.

High latency: Means slow response times; it is not a benefit.

Load balancing: Distributes traffic across resources but does not specifically address scaling resources up and down.

Therefore, the answer is C. elasticity.
Hampton, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User4094 on: August 26, 2026
Question 16:
Correct answers: B and C. The answer key appears correct.

B — Single customer login across properties: Customer 360 Identity provides centralized identity services, allowing an organization to recognize a customer across multiple digital properties and applications. This helps UC understand authenticated activity as part of a broader customer identity.

C — Multi-brand support: Customer 360 Identity can support multiple brands and user experiences. Identity services can remain centralized while correlating a customer’s activity across different corporate brands or channels.

Why the others are incorrect:

A: Customer 360 Identity does not automatically populate all data into Customer 360 Data Manager and Customer 360 Audiences. Integration and data configuration are still required.

D: Tracking anonymous activity and linking it after sign-up may be possible through broader customer-data and tracking implementations, but it is not the primary Customer 360 Identity benefit tested here. Identity focuses mainly on authentication, registration, and cross-property identity correlation.

Zagreb, Croatia

AI Explanation - verified by User8074 on: August 29, 2026
hi
Hi! I can help explain the CompTIA exam questions on this page, clarify concepts, or review why an answer is correct.
Weston, Canada

AI Explanation - verified by francis4fnc on: August 23, 2026
Question 10:
Correct answer: B. The ARN contains the mrk- prefix, identifying a multi-Region AWS KMS key. Multi-Region keys have related key material in multiple Regions, and each regional key must be handled separately.
To remove the key as quickly as possible:

Identify every Region containing a replica.

Schedule deletion of the KMS key in each Region.

Use the minimum KMS waiting period: 7 days.

Scheduling deletion in only one Region does not remove the replicas elsewhere.
Why the other options are wrong:

A — Use the root user: Root access does not eliminate the need to schedule deletion for every regional replica. The problem is the multi-Region structure, not insufficient administrative permissions.

C — Update the key policy: The policy already grants kms:* to IAM principals. Changing permissions does not delete the key or its replicas.

D — Disable the key and schedule deletion in 30 days: Disabling can stop cryptographic use, but 30 days is slower than the permitted 7-day waiting period. It also does not address replicas in other Regions.

The key policy allowing IAM principals does not override KMS deletion procedures or the requirement to manage each regional key separately.
Lagos, Nigeria

AI Explanation - verified by User2034 on: August 23, 2026
Question 1:
Correct answer: A — Consult the risk register for an appropriate planned risk response and implement it.
The resource unavailability was an identified risk, and it has now occurred—so it is an issue. The project manager should first check the risk register and apply the predefined response, such as using a backup resource, adjusting assignments, or outsourcing the work.
Why the others are weaker:

B: Moving the task may affect the critical path and should not be done before evaluating the planned response and impacts.

C: Excluding a required task is not appropriate without formal analysis and stakeholder approval.

D: Lessons learned and the risk log should be updated, but only after or alongside managing the immediate issue; updating them is not the first action.

Exam cue: when an identified risk occurs, execute the planned risk response first and then update project records as needed.
Riyadh, Saudi Arabia

AI Explanation - verified by tkrs.1997 on: August 19, 2026
Question 62:
The image containing the SQL command is not visible here, so I can’t verify exactly where the blank appears.
The key concept is that a CSV source must be declared with USING CSV, not USING DELTA:

sql CREATE TABLE my_table USING CSV OPTIONS (path '/path/to/csv');

Alternatively, for an external table:

sql CREATE TABLE my_table USING CSV LOCATION '/path/to/csv';

USING CSV specifies the file format.

path or LOCATION specifies where the files are stored.

USING DELTA would be used only when the source data is in Delta format.

FROM is used in a SELECT statement, not normally as the format declaration in CREATE TABLE.

Thus, B is likely the intended answer, provided the surrounding command supplies the file path correctly.
Mumbai, India

AI Explanation - verified by User6412 on: September 06, 2026
Question 16:
Question 16: Correct answer — No (B).
The proposed solution is to include Azure API Management, but that service manages and publishes APIs. It is not the appropriate tool for automatically creating sets of Azure resources.
For repeatable automated deployments, use:

Azure Resource Manager (ARM) templates

Or, in newer Azure terminology, Bicep files

A reusable template can define the identical resources required by each business unit. You can then deploy it repeatedly, changing only parameters such as the business unit name or location.
So, the solution does not meet the goal because API Management is unrelated to infrastructure provisioning.
Paris, France

AI Explanation - verified by User8074 on: August 31, 2026
Question 107:
Correct answer: D — Select an IdP (Identity Provider).
The organization should first choose or establish an identity provider, such as a centralized directory service. The IdP authenticates users and becomes the trusted source for access to the SaaS applications.
After selecting the IdP, the organization can configure:

SAML: Enables federated authentication and single sign-on between the IdP and SaaS providers.

OAuth tokens: Allow delegated application access; OAuth is not primarily the first step for employee SSO.

Password vaulting: Stores or autofills multiple passwords but does not eliminate the separate credentials or provide true federation.

Exam tip: For a cloud environment with many SaaS logins and a goal of reducing credentials, think centralized identity provider first, followed by SAML-based SSO.
Weston, Canada

AI Explanation - verified by User8693 on: September 04, 2026
Question 89:
The answer key’s NIDS and WAF is more defensible here. WAF is definitely one of the answers because it specifically protects web applications by detecting/blocking attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and malicious HTTP/HTTPS requests.
The second choice is NIDS:

NIDS: Monitors network traffic for suspicious activity and network-based attacks targeting the application or its supporting services.

HIPS: Protects an individual host by monitoring processes, files, and system activity. It can help secure the web server, but it is not focused specifically on the application’s network attack surface.

SIEM: Aggregates and correlates logs; it does not directly prevent attacks.

Honeypot: A decoy system, not the primary protection for a production web application.

Certificate revocation list: Deals with certificate trust, not application exploitation.

So, for a web application exposed over HTTPS, choose WAF + NIDS. Your WAF choice is correct; HIPS is reasonable in a broader defense-in-depth design but is less directly aligned with the question’s stated risk.
Lagos, Nigeria

AI Explanation - verified by chaudharirevanth03 on: August 22, 2026
Question 42:
Correct answer: D — Last-mile ETL
In Question 42, the analysis team starts with gold-layer tables that are already curated by Delta Live Tables. However, they need to apply additional transformations before using the data for their specific analysis.
This final, consumer-specific processing is called last-mile ETL. It commonly includes:

Filtering or reshaping columns

Joining with an analysis-specific dataset

Creating calculated fields

Applying business logic for a particular project

Why the others are incorrect:

Data blending: Combining different data sources, not specifically the final processing step.

Data enhancement: A broad term for enriching data.

Data testing: Checking data quality or pipeline correctness.

Last-mile ETL: The precise term for additional transformations performed after the main pipeline, often directly before analytics or reporting.

Anonymous

AI Explanation - verified by ravi.chidananda on: August 20, 2026
Question 149:
Correct answers: A and B — AWS Audit Manager and AWS Config.

AWS Audit Manager continuously collects evidence from AWS services and helps assess whether workloads comply with regulatory frameworks and internal policies. It can produce audit-ready reports.

AWS Config records resource configurations and evaluates them against compliance rules. For example, it can check whether encryption, logging, or access settings meet company requirements.

Why the others are less suitable:

Amazon Inspector identifies software vulnerabilities and unintended network exposure, not general policy or regulatory compliance.

Amazon CloudWatch monitors metrics, logs, and operational events, but is not primarily a compliance assessment service.

AWS CloudTrail records API activity for auditing and investigation. It supports compliance, but does not itself provide the structured compliance assessment capabilities of Audit Manager and Config.

The key distinction is: Audit Manager assesses and reports compliance; Config continuously checks resource configurations against rules.
Bengaluru, India

AI Explanation - verified by User6360 on: August 20, 2026
Question 82:
Question 82’s answer is hybrid.
The image containing the full sentence isn’t visible here, but the explanation indicates it refers to deploying a hybrid application that:

Uses on-premises data or resources

Runs components in the cloud

Can scale across multiple cloud environments when demand increases

A hybrid cloud combines an organization’s on-premises infrastructure with public-cloud services. This is useful when an application must continue using legacy or sensitive on-premises data while taking advantage of cloud scalability.
Why the other likely choices would not fit:

Public cloud: Resources are hosted entirely by a cloud provider.

Private cloud: Resources are dedicated to one organization, usually in its own environment.

Hybrid: Combines on-premises and cloud resources.

So, based on the available explanation, hybrid is the appropriate selection.
Pune, India

AI Explanation - verified by User8565 on: August 30, 2026
Question 7:
Correct answer: D — The charging port is dirty or damaged.
A Lightning connector is reversible, so it should work in either orientation. If the device recognizes the cable only after flipping it, one side of the connector contacts—or the corresponding contacts inside the port—may not be making a good connection.
Because the same cable works with other devices, the device’s charging port is more likely at fault than the cable.

Restarting the device: may fix software problems, but not a directional connection issue.

Swollen battery: is a safety concern, but would not typically cause recognition only in one orientation.

Failing cable: possible in general, but less likely because it works on other similar devices.

Dirty or damaged port: best matches the symptoms. Inspect and carefully clean the port, or have it serviced if damaged.

Lilongwe, Malawi

AI Explanation - verified by User3678 on: August 18, 2026
Question 5:
Answer: No — the stated answer B is correct.
VirtualNetworkB does not contain a VPN gateway. Therefore, selecting Allow gateway transit on VirtualNetworkB is not the appropriate configuration.
Key points:

The VPN gateway is in VirtualNetworkA.

Gateway transit is configured on the peering associated with the VNet that contains the gateway—here, VirtualNetworkA.

A peered VNet may use the remote gateway through the appropriate peering option, but this does not automatically update an existing P2S client’s routes.

The Windows 10 workstation’s P2S VPN client package was created before VirtualNetworkB was peered, so it may not have a route for VirtualNetworkB.

The practical fix is to download and reinstall the P2S VPN client configuration package after the peering is configured. That is why question 6’s solution meets the goal, while question 5’s proposed setting does not.
Lima, Peru

AI Explanation - verified by User9060 on: August 24, 2026
Question 13:
Correct answer: C — The switch floods the frame to all ports except the receiving port in the same VLAN.
Why:

A Layer 2 switch checks the destination MAC address in its MAC address table (CAM table).

If the destination MAC is unknown, the switch cannot select a specific outgoing port.

It therefore performs unknown-unicast flooding, sending the frame out every other port in that VLAN.

The frame is not sent back through the port where it arrived.

The switch can still learn the source MAC address from the frame and associate it with the receiving port. Once it later learns the destination MAC address, future frames can be forwarded directly rather than flooded.
Johannesburg, South Africa

AI Explanation - verified by User4094 on: August 23, 2026
Question 5:
Correct answer: B — JWT Bearer Token Flow
The legacy fulfillment system is a server-to-server integration that must authenticate to Salesforce without storing a Salesforce username/password, client secret, or refresh token.
With the JWT Bearer Token Flow:

The legacy system creates a signed JWT assertion.

Salesforce validates the assertion using a certificate configured on a Connected App.

Salesforce issues an access token for the integration user.

No refresh token is required; the system can request a new access token when needed.

Why the others are less suitable:

Web Server Flow: normally uses a client secret and authorization/refresh tokens.

Username-Password Flow: requires storing Salesforce credentials and is discouraged for integrations where stronger options are available.

User Agent Flow: intended for user-interactive applications, not unattended server-to-server processing.

The key clue is unattended integration + no stored secrets or refresh token ? JWT Bearer Token Flow. The system still must securely protect its private key used to sign the JWT.
Zagreb, Croatia

AI Explanation - verified by User4485 on: August 28, 2026
Question 51:
Answer: A. Denial of service (DoS)
The monitoring information likely shows an unusually high volume of traffic or resource consumption directed at the testing system. A DoS attack overwhelms a server or service so legitimate users cannot access it, even though the server itself remains powered on and reachable from the network.
Why the other options are less likely:

ARP poisoning: Redirects or intercepts local network traffic; it would more likely affect communication paths or cause man-in-the-middle behavior.

Jamming: Interferes with wireless signals. The scenario does not indicate a wireless outage.

Kerberoasting: Attempts to obtain service-account password hashes from Kerberos; it is a credential attack, not typically a direct service outage.

I cannot see the monitoring image, but based on the wording and the provided answer key, DoS is the best answer.
Biloxi, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User4094 on: August 23, 2026
Question 1:
The answer key shows D (Web Server Flow), but that appears incorrect based on the requirement.
The best answer is OpenID Connect—specifically, an OpenID Connect flow appropriate for the application.
Why:

OpenID Connect (OIDC) is an authentication layer built on OAuth 2.0.

It returns an ID token, normally a JWT containing identity claims such as the user’s subject, name, email, or other permitted attributes.

The wellness application can consume those claims without needing a separate user-information call.

Why the other choices are less suitable:

JWT Bearer Token Flow: intended for server-to-server authorization and does not primarily provide an end-user ID token.

Web Server Flow: is an OAuth authorization-code flow. It can be used with OIDC in some implementations, but “Web Server Flow” alone does not specifically guarantee an ID token.

User Agent Flow: describes an OAuth flow, not the identity protocol itself.

So, unless the original options omitted wording such as “OpenID Connect Web Server Flow,” the stated answer should be treated cautiously.
Zagreb, Croatia

AI Explanation - verified by User8074 on: August 30, 2026
Question 68:
Correct answer: A. Serverless architecture
Serverless architecture reduces deployment time and operational expense because the cloud provider manages:

Server provisioning

Operating systems and runtime infrastructure

Scaling

Much of the maintenance and patching

Developers can focus on deploying code, often as functions, without managing the underlying servers. Costs are commonly based on actual execution or resource usage.
Why the others are less appropriate:

Thin clients reduce endpoint hardware requirements but do not specifically streamline code deployment.

Private cloud provides dedicated cloud infrastructure but usually requires more management and expense.

Virtual machines improve resource utilization, but administrators still manage the VMs, operating systems, and deployments.

The key clue is reducing both deployment effort and infrastructure expense, which points to serverless computing.
Weston, Canada

AI Explanation - verified by User2538 on: August 19, 2026
Question 4:
Correct answer: No.
Azure virtual machines are an example of Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), not Software as a Service (SaaS).

IaaS: You manage the virtual machine’s operating system, configuration, applications, and data. Azure manages the physical infrastructure and virtualization platform.

PaaS: You deploy applications without managing the underlying operating system or servers.

SaaS: You consume a complete application managed by the provider, such as Microsoft 365.

Because the requirement is to deploy and manage Azure virtual machines, the appropriate model is IaaS. The proposed SaaS solution does not meet the goal, so No is correct.
Pune, India

AI Explanation - verified by User4059 on: September 02, 2026
Question 9:
Correct answer: A — vBond
In Cisco SD-WAN, the components have distinct roles:

vBond — orchestration plane: Authenticates devices, helps them discover each other, and assists with NAT traversal and initial control-connection setup.

vSmart — control plane: Distributes routing and policy information to WAN Edge devices using the overlay control plane.

vManage — management plane: Provides centralized configuration, monitoring, and orchestration through its GUI/API.

WAN Edge — data plane: Forwards user traffic across the SD-WAN fabric.

The term orchestration points directly to vBond, which acts as the initial coordination point when SD-WAN devices join and establish their overlay relationships.
Frankfurt Am Main, Germany

AI Explanation - verified by User7377 on: September 01, 2026
Question 3:
Correct answer: C — approval of policy statements and funding.
Senior management’s primary role in information security governance is to provide direction, authority, and resources. They should:

Approve major information security policies

Allocate funding and resources

Set the organization’s risk appetite

Ensure security supports business objectives

The other choices are mainly operational or oversight activities:

Evaluating vendors is generally handled by security, procurement, or technical teams.

Assessing risks is typically performed by security and risk-management professionals, with management accepting or prioritizing the risks.

Monitoring regulatory adherence is usually handled by compliance, audit, or security functions.

The key exam distinction is that senior management governs and approves, while security professionals generally assess, implement, and monitor.
Islington, United Kingdom

AI Explanation - verified by User8195 on: August 21, 2026
Question 18:
Question 18: Yes — the solution meets the goal. The answer key’s A is correct.

Azure Resource Manager (ARM) templates define Azure resources in a declarative JSON file.

You can deploy the same template repeatedly for each business unit, ensuring that identical resources are created consistently.

Templates reduce manual administrative effort and support repeatable, automated deployments.

Parameters can customize values such as names, regions, and sizes while keeping the overall resource configuration the same.

Management groups organize subscriptions and apply governance; they do not automatically deploy collections of Azure resources.
La Chaux-De-Fonds, Switzerland

AI Explanation - verified by User1551 on: August 30, 2026
Question 6:
Correct answer: B. SLA (Service-Level Agreement)
An SLA defines the service expectations between a customer and a vendor, including:

How quickly the vendor must respond to an incident or request

Target resolution times

Availability or uptime requirements

Performance metrics and penalties for not meeting them

Why the others are incorrect:

SOW (Statement of Work): Describes the project’s scope, tasks, deliverables, and timeline.

MOA (Memorandum of Agreement): Documents a formal agreement to cooperate or perform specific activities.

MOU (Memorandum of Understanding): Records a mutual understanding or intent, often less binding than a contract.

When a question mentions vendor response or resolution time, look for SLA.
Dubai, United Arab Emirates

AI Explanation - verified by User2531 on: August 26, 2026
Question 84:
Correct answer: D. CVSS
CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) is used to determine the severity of a vulnerability. It assigns a numerical score, typically from 0.0 to 10.0, based on factors such as:

Exploitability

Attack complexity

Required privileges

User interaction

Impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability

Why the others are incorrect:

CVE: Identifies and tracks a specific vulnerability; it does not primarily measure severity.

OSINT: Open-source intelligence gathered from publicly available sources.

SOAR: Security orchestration, automation, and response technology used to automate security workflows.

Therefore, the best choice is CVSS.
Philadelphia, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User5950 on: September 03, 2026
Question 191:
Question 191: The answer key shows D (policy), but I believe the correct answer is C: risk perspective.
Senior management is most likely to support information security governance when it is connected to business risk and organizational objectives. Presenting security in terms of risks—such as financial loss, operational disruption, legal exposure, or reputational damage—helps executives understand why governance matters.
Why the other options are weaker:

Threat perspective: Focuses on possible attacks, but may seem technical or hypothetical.

Compliance perspective: Can motivate action, but compliance alone does not demonstrate the broader business value of governance.

Policy perspective: Policies are important, but they are a means of implementing governance, not its primary business justification.

For ISACA questions, look for the option that frames security as enterprise risk management and business protection, rather than as technical controls or policy administration.
Niterói, Brazil

What the ADX-201 Exam Tests and How to Pass It

The Administrative Essentials for New Admins in Lightning Experience (ADX-201) certification exam is designed for individuals who are beginning their journey as Salesforce administrators. This certification validates that a candidate possesses the foundational knowledge required to manage, configure, and maintain a Salesforce organization using the Lightning Experience interface. Employers in various industries, ranging from small businesses to large enterprises, hire professionals with this credential because it demonstrates a verified ability to handle user management, security, data modeling, and reporting tasks essential for daily operations. Achieving this Salesforce certification signals to hiring managers that you have moved beyond theoretical knowledge and are prepared to support a business's CRM implementation effectively. It serves as a critical benchmark for anyone looking to establish a career in the Salesforce ecosystem, providing the baseline skills necessary for more advanced administrative or developer roles.

What the ADX-201 Exam Covers

The ADX-201 exam assesses a broad range of competencies that a new administrator must master to keep a Salesforce instance running smoothly. Candidates are tested on their ability to configure the user interface, manage security settings such as profiles and permission sets, and maintain data integrity through validation rules and custom fields. Furthermore, the exam evaluates your proficiency in creating reports and dashboards, which are vital for providing stakeholders with actionable insights. By working through our practice questions, you will encounter scenarios that mirror these core responsibilities, helping you understand how to apply Salesforce features to solve real-world business problems. This exam preparation process ensures that you are not just memorizing definitions, but learning how to navigate the Lightning Experience to optimize organizational workflows.

One of the most technically demanding areas of the ADX-201 exam involves the complex interplay between security, sharing, and visibility settings. Candidates must demonstrate a deep understanding of how organization-wide defaults, role hierarchies, and sharing rules interact to control data access across different user groups. This topic is challenging because it requires you to think critically about the principle of least privilege while ensuring that users have the access they need to perform their jobs. Mastering this domain is essential, as misconfigurations here can lead to significant data security risks or operational bottlenecks within a production environment.

Are These Real ADX-201 Exam Questions?

Our platform provides practice questions that are sourced and verified by the community, consisting of IT professionals and recent test-takers who have sat for the actual Salesforce certification exam. Because our content is community-verified, our questions reflect what appears on the real exam, providing you with a reliable way to gauge your readiness. If you've been searching for ADX-201 exam dumps or braindump files, our community-verified practice questions offer something more valuable, each question is verified and explained by IT professionals who recently passed the exam. We do not provide unauthorized or leaked content, as our goal is to help you learn the material thoroughly rather than encouraging rote memorization of stolen questions.

Community verification works by allowing users to engage with the material, discuss specific answer choices, and flag any questions that may be outdated or unclear. When a user identifies a potential issue, the community reviews the feedback and provides context based on their recent exam experience, ensuring the accuracy of the explanations. This collaborative approach creates a dynamic study environment where the quality of the practice questions is constantly maintained by those who understand the current exam objectives. By relying on this collective knowledge, you gain access to insights that go beyond simple answer keys, helping you understand the "why" behind every correct response.

How to Prepare for the ADX-201 Exam

Effective exam preparation for the ADX-201 requires a combination of hands-on practice and a solid understanding of Salesforce concepts. You should spend significant time in a Developer Edition or Trailhead Playground environment, actively building and configuring the features you are studying, such as custom objects, automation tools, and security settings. Relying solely on documentation is rarely sufficient; you must experience how these tools behave in a live environment to truly internalize the material. Every practice question includes a free AI Tutor explanation that breaks down the reasoning behind the correct answer, so you understand the concept, not just the answer. Building a consistent study schedule that balances this hands-on work with regular review sessions will help you retain information more effectively than cramming.

A common mistake candidates make is focusing too heavily on memorizing specific steps rather than understanding the underlying logic of the Salesforce platform. The ADX-201 exam is heavily scenario-based, meaning you will be presented with business requirements and asked to select the best configuration solution, which requires applied knowledge rather than rote recall. To avoid this pitfall, focus on understanding the "why" behind each feature: why would you choose a validation rule over a workflow rule, or when is a permission set more appropriate than a profile change? Additionally, practice managing your time during your study sessions so that you are comfortable navigating the exam interface and answering questions efficiently under pressure.

What to Expect on Exam Day

On the day of your certification exam, you should be prepared for a format that typically includes multiple-choice and multiple-select questions designed to test your practical application of Salesforce administrative tasks. The exam is administered in a secure environment, often through a proctored setting like Pearson VUE, which ensures the integrity of the testing process. You will be expected to demonstrate your knowledge of the Lightning Experience interface, including how to manage users, security, and data, within a set time limit. While the specific number of questions and the passing score can vary, the core of the experience remains focused on your ability to solve administrative problems in a professional capacity. Being familiar with the exam interface and the types of scenarios presented will help reduce anxiety and allow you to focus entirely on demonstrating your skills.

Who Should Use These ADX-201 Practice Questions

These practice questions are intended for individuals who are actively pursuing their Salesforce certification and are looking to validate their skills as a new administrator. Whether you are a junior IT professional, a business analyst transitioning into a Salesforce role, or a power user looking to formalize your knowledge, this exam preparation tool is designed to support your goals. Passing the ADX-201 is a significant career milestone that confirms you have the foundational expertise to manage a Salesforce implementation, which is a highly sought-after skill in the current job market. By using these resources, you are positioning yourself to demonstrate professional competence to current and future employers, opening doors to new opportunities within the Salesforce ecosystem.

To get the most out of these practice questions, do not simply read the answer and move on; instead, engage deeply with the AI Tutor explanation to ensure you grasp the underlying concept. Take advantage of the community discussions to see how others have approached similar problems, and make sure to flag any questions you get wrong so you can revisit them later. This iterative process of testing, reviewing, and refining your knowledge is the most effective way to build the confidence needed for the actual certification exam. Browse the questions above and use the community discussions and AI Tutor to build real exam confidence.

AI Tutor 👋 I’m here to help!

Salesforce ADX-201 Exam Prep Administrative Essentials for New Admins in Lightning Experience (Page 7 )

QUESTION: 26

QUESTION: 27

QUESTION: 28

QUESTION: 29

QUESTION: 30