Salesforce Analytics-Arch-201 Exam Prep
Salesforce Certified Tableau Architect (Page 21 )

• A — Capacity: The system must handle all current records and anticipated future records. A system that cannot cope with volume will quickly become ineffective.
• C — Accuracy: Academic records are critical, so the new system must be at least as accurate as the existing system and comparable systems. Poor accuracy could cause serious administrative and reputational problems.
• D — Integration: Linking with the university’s financial systems supports consistency and avoids duplicate data entry, especially for registration, deregistration and fee-related transactions.

• B — Parallel running: This is a useful implementation and risk-control technique, but it is not an essential feature of the system itself. It may also be expensive and time-consuming.
• E — Internet access for all information: This creates significant confidentiality and security risks. External access might be needed for selected services, but unrestricted access to all information is not essential and would be inappropriate for student records.

• Crowd-sourced evaluation: Requires recruiting and managing many evaluators.
• Human-worker evaluation: Provides human judgment but requires coordination, labeling instructions, and quality control.
• RLHF: Is a training and alignment process, not simply a low-overhead model comparison method.
• Automatic model evaluation: Quickly evaluates outputs using predefined toxicity or quality metrics with minimal manual effort.

• C: Develop the rule in the Rules Editor, define the events, match, and condition sections, then use the test rule feature. This directly validates the YARA-L rule without enabling it in production.
• A: UDM Search can help investigate data and refine filters, but it does not fully test YARA-L logic—especially complex event joins, match windows, and conditions.

• Understating expenses and liabilities
• Overstating profit
• Misleading users of the financial information
• Potentially breaching integrity, objectivity, and professional competence and due care

• A static IP gives the surveillance system a predictable local address, so users can reliably reach it on the LAN.
• However, a static IP does not block internet-based login attempts. If the router exposes the device through port forwarding, attackers could still reach it.
• Port mapping normally exposes an internal service externally, so A is a poor choice as written.
• Subnetting alone also does not block traffic; it would require routing/firewall rules.

• If the Facebook user is new, Salesforce invokes createUser.
• If the user already exists, Salesforce can invoke updateUser.
• The handler can read the latest data from Facebook, such as name, email, or other profile attributes, and update the corresponding Salesforce user.

• B: A scheduled job is unnecessary and would not provide real-time synchronization during authentication.
• C: A Facebook signed request is not the standard mechanism for updating Salesforce user records in this authentication-provider setup.
• D: SAML Just-in-Time provisioning applies to SAML identity providers, not Facebook OAuth authentication.

1. Convert text and images into numerical embeddings.
2. Store or compare those embeddings.
3. Retrieve the most semantically similar items.

• Embedding model: Best for similarity search and retrieval.
• Generation model: Best for producing new text or other content from multimodal input.

• Restarting the device: May fix software glitches, but would not usually make cable orientation matter.
• Swollen battery: A safety concern, but it would not typically cause recognition only in one cable orientation.
• Failing cable: Possible, but less likely because the problem occurs with this particular device and not other devices of the same type.

text 
heartrateheartrateheartrate

• Spark column objects can be multiplied, for example:

python 
  df["heartrate"] * 3

• A DataFrame itself cannot be multiplied, but the expression is referring to a column.
• It is also not primarily a Python syntax error; the code was parsed, then Spark failed while resolving the column name.

• Threat perspective: Focuses on possible attacks, but may seem technical or hypothetical.
• Compliance perspective: Can motivate action, but compliance alone does not demonstrate the broader business value of governance.
• Policy perspective: Policies are important, but they are a means of implementing governance, not its primary business justification.

• Espionage: Stealing information for intelligence or competitive purposes.
• Data exfiltration: Unauthorized removal or transfer of data.
• Nation-state attack: A sophisticated attack sponsored by a government.
• Shadow IT: Unapproved technology or access methods used by employees.

• Default network device credentials: More associated with external attackers or poor device configuration.
• Spear phishing emails: Commonly used to compromise users, but less characteristic of an insider who already has access.
• Typosquatting and impersonation: Primarily social-engineering techniques aimed at deceiving users.
• Unidentified removable devices: Provide a direct way to transfer data outside the organization and may bypass network monitoring.

• C — Custom buttons display at the top and bottom of a page: Correct. In Salesforce Classic, buttons can appear in the page’s button areas, including the top and bottom of record pages.
• D — Custom buttons are available for Person Accounts: Correct. Person Accounts use the Account object, so Account custom buttons can be available on Person Account layouts.
• E — Custom buttons can reference an external app: Correct. A URL custom button can launch or navigate to an external application or website.

• A: JavaScript custom buttons are a Salesforce Classic feature and are not supported in Lightning Experience. They do not enhance Lightning Experience.
• B: The User object does not generally support custom buttons in the same way standard business objects do.

• Internal hostnames and subdomains
• Network structure and naming conventions
• Servers and services
• Relationships between systems

• Determining ISP-assigned address space: Usually involves external registration and DNS information, not internal host discovery.
• Bypassing DNS sinkholing: Would require evidence that malicious DNS requests avoided redirection.
• Initial access: DNS queries alone do not show that the attacker gained access.
• Exfiltrating data: DNS tunneling can do this, but the snippet would typically show encoded or unusually long DNS queries.

Correct reasoning

• Create storage5 as a General-purpose v2 (StorageV2) account.
• Configure Blob object replication from storage5 to an existing compatible storage account.
• The destination must support object replication—typically another StorageV2 or premium block blob account.
• Blob versioning must be enabled on both accounts.
• Blob change feed must be enabled on the source account.
• The accounts must meet Azure’s object-replication requirements, including being in supported regions and having compatible configuration.

• Deploy five individual VMs: This does not create a VM scale set.
• Modify Availability Zones or Size settings: These actions do not create the required scale set and add unnecessary steps.
• VM orchestration mode: This is Flexible orchestration, intended for more individually managed VMs and mixed configurations. It is not the best choice for a straightforward group of identical instances.

• Works across SaaS and internal applications: TOTP is widely supported by authentication systems and can be integrated into many applications.
• Device manufacturer agnostic: A hardware token or authenticator application can generate the code without depending on a specific computer or phone manufacturer.
• Offline capability: The code is generated locally using a shared secret and the current time; an internet connection or cellular service is not required.

• Username and password: May work offline but provides weaker authentication and does not meet the intended improvement in security.
• Biometrics: Can depend on device hardware, operating-system support, and enrollment mechanisms.
• SMS verification: Requires cellular connectivity and is vulnerable to threats such as SIM swapping.

• VLAN 10 for data
• VLAN 20 for voice

• A: Describes physical trunking or logical switch ports, not an SVI.
• B: An SVI can provide management access, but that is only one use—not the best description here.
• D: SVI use is not related to running out of physical ports.

• 10 TB with maximum I/O performance: Use EC2 instance store. It provides very high-throughput, low-latency local storage suitable for temporary video-processing data. The application must tolerate data loss because instance store is ephemeral.
• 300 TB of highly durable media: Use Amazon S3, which is designed for highly durable object storage and can scale to this size.
• 900 TB of inactive archival media: Use S3 Glacier, which provides lower-cost storage for data that is rarely accessed.

• A: Amazon EBS offers high performance but is not the best fit for the question’s “maximum possible I/O” requirement compared with local instance store.
• B: Amazon EFS is durable and shared, but is generally more expensive and less suitable for very large archival storage.
• C: Uses EC2 instance store for performance, but incorrectly uses EFS for the 300-TB durable tier and S3 rather than Glacier for archival data.

• C — “when the query finishes”

• D — “when the query began”

• BCP (Business Continuity Plan): Ensures the organization can continue its broader business operations during and after a disruption. It is broader than the IT-focused recovery required here.
• Communication plan: Defines how information is shared with employees, the public, and other stakeholders; it does not restore systems.
• IRP (Incident Response Plan): Handles and contains security incidents, such as malware or unauthorized access. A tornado is a disaster, not primarily a cybersecurity incident.

• A: Using an external OAuth 2.0 identity provider could provide unified identity, but it does not specifically address Salesforce capacity or high-volume login limits.
• B: Making the Experience Cloud community a SAML identity provider and using JIT provisioning is a possible federation pattern, but it may not be appropriate for this scale without Salesforce validation.
• C: A default account is unrelated to solving identity unification and high login throughput. Person Accounts can be supported in appropriate B2C Commerce integrations.

• Code suggestions: Inline completions as you write code, such as lines, functions, or blocks.
• Chat: An interactive interface for asking questions, explaining code, generating code, and helping with debugging.

• Knowledge Base: Not listed as a standard Copilot Individual IDE feature in this context.
• Pull Request Diff Analysis: More closely associated with GitHub-based code review or pull-request features, not the core Individual IDE extension capabilities.

• Domínios personalizados.
• Armazenamento suficiente.
• Instâncias dedicadas.
• Balanceamento de carga.
• Menor custo entre os planos que atendem a tudo.

• AWS AppSync is designed for serverless applications that need to retrieve and combine data from multiple sources.
• A pipeline resolver can invoke multiple functions or data-source resolvers, including resolvers connected to different DynamoDB tables.
• The application can receive the combined result through one GraphQL request, without requiring custom aggregation logic in the application.
• This is operationally efficient because AppSync manages the API layer and resolver execution.

• Athena Federated Query is intended primarily for analytics and ad hoc querying, not low-latency application data retrieval.
• Querying DynamoDB through Athena can consume DynamoDB read capacity and may affect table performance.
• It also introduces analytical-query overhead and is not the normal choice for a microservice web application.

• netstat: Shows local network connections and listening ports, but not which WAN path carries the traffic.
• nslookup: Resolves domain names to IP addresses.
• ping: Tests reachability and latency but does not show the route.

• Application management: Controls which apps can be installed or used; it does not remove existing data after theft.
• Full-disk encryption: Protects data when the device is powered off or locked, but it may not help if the attacker has already unlocked the device.
• Containerization: Separates corporate data from personal data, but the attacker may still access the corporate container using the stolen credentials.

• B. Users accessing Salesforce from public Wi-Fi

• C. Users choosing the same password as their Facebook password

• A: 2FA does not protect an already-authenticated, unlocked session if someone accesses an unattended laptop.
• D: Weak password-reset questions are an account-recovery weakness. 2FA primarily strengthens login authentication, not necessarily the security-question reset process.

• Azure Resource Manager (ARM) templates define the virtual machines and related Azure resources declaratively. You can deploy the same template repeatedly, ensuring consistent VM sizes, networking, storage, extensions, and other infrastructure settings.

• PowerShell DSC extension applies and maintains the required Windows configuration inside each VM. DSC is state-based: if a setting changes or becomes incorrect, DSC can bring it back to the desired configuration.

• Azure Pipelines deployment groups organize deployment targets, but they do not primarily enforce ongoing VM configuration.
• Custom Script Extension runs setup scripts, but it is generally less maintainable and does not continuously enforce configuration like DSC.
• Pipeline stage templates reuse pipeline workflow definitions; they do not configure the VMs themselves.

• Secret scope: A named container that groups related secrets and defines access permissions. Example: finance-prod.
• Secret key: The name of an individual secret stored inside that scope. Example: db-password.

text 
Scope: finance-prod 
  Key: db-username 
  Key: db-password

python 
dbutils.secrets.get( 
    scope="finance-prod", 
    key="db-password" 
)

• Gaia Portal: Controlled by Gaia administration settings, not SmartConsole Trusted Clients.
• SSH: Controlled by Gaia or operating-system SSH access settings.
• Security Gateway(s): SmartConsole connects to the Security Management Server, not directly to gateways for this purpose.

• 25 — Traditional SMTP server-to-server delivery; often restricted for client submission and not inherently encrypted.
• 110 — POP3 for retrieving email; unencrypted by default.
• 143 — IMAP for retrieving and synchronizing email; unencrypted by default.
• 587 — Authenticated SMTP submission, commonly secured with STARTTLS.

• A: My Domain is required for many SSO configurations, but if SSO works, it is unlikely to be the cause of losing the target record.
• B: HTTP-POST is a valid SAML binding and does not inherently prevent redirection.
• D: An incorrect Federation ID generally causes authentication or user-matching failure—not successful login to the home page.

• s3:GetObject for the relevant objects
• s3:ListBucket if listing is required
• Appropriate bucket and object resource permissions

• B: Making the bucket public is insecure and unnecessary.
• C: Prompt engineering cannot override AWS IAM or encryption permissions.
• D: Data sensitivity does not determine whether the role can access it.

1. You try to access a cloud application, such as accounting software.
2. The application redirects you to the company’s IdP.
3. You authenticate with the IdP.
4. The IdP sends a digitally signed SAML assertion to the application.
5. The application validates the assertion and grants access.

• The user’s identity
• Whether authentication succeeded
• Roles or group membership
• Access-related attributes

• Customers may boycott V’s products.
• Supermarket customers may stop buying from V.
• Investors may view V as having higher legal, ethical and reputational risk.
• V could face fines, lawsuits, contract losses and higher costs.
• Expected future profits may fall.

• Configure row-level security (RLS) using the sales region and the HR manager’s identity.
• Publish the reports and datasets through a Power BI app.
• Grant the HR managers permission to use the app, but do not add them as workspace members.
• App users can view and interact with reports while RLS limits them to their region.
• They cannot modify the report layout because they do not have workspace editing permissions.

• Adding them to the workspace gives them workspace permissions that may allow report or dataset changes, depending on the assigned role.
• Creating copies is unnecessary and creates maintenance and security problems.
• Hosting datasets and reports in different workspaces does not, by itself, provide the required controlled access.

• Ease of exploitation
• Required privileges
• User interaction
• Impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability

• CVE: Identifies and names a specific publicly known vulnerability; it does not measure severity.
• OSINT: Refers to intelligence gathered from publicly available sources.
• SOAR: Automates and coordinates security operations, such as alert response and playbooks.

• Espionage: Stealing information for intelligence or competitive purposes.
• Data exfiltration: Unauthorized removal or transfer of data.
• Nation-state attack: An attack sponsored or conducted by a government.
• Shadow IT: Technology or access methods used outside approved IT processes.

• Suspended an operator who correctly refused to use unsafe equipment.
• Rewarded another operator for using the equipment despite the broken safety guard.

• A — Management is not particularly concerned with managing risks.

• B — Employees will perceive that management does not care about health and safety risks.

• C — This factory’s safety record is likely to be poor.

• Encryption to preserve confidentiality
• Integrity protection to detect alteration
• Authentication of the server through certificates

• SHA-256: A hashing algorithm; it does not encrypt data for transmission.
• SSL 3.0: Obsolete and insecure. It should not be used.
• AES-256: A strong encryption algorithm, but by itself it does not provide the complete secure communication protocol needed for data in transit.

• A. IDS attack signatures: Primarily detects suspicious network activity, not necessarily malware embedded in uploaded files.
• C. Load balancer: Improves availability and distributes traffic; it does not inspect documents for malware.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications from attacks such as SQL injection and command injection, but its primary role is not scanning uploaded PDFs for malware.

sql 
SELECT COUNT(*) FROM table;

• A: It does not normally need to scan all data files for this operation.
• B: Results are not simply reused from a query cache every time. Caching is separate from Delta’s metadata optimization.
• D: The relevant metadata is maintained through the Delta transaction log, not directly treated as a Parquet-file metadata operation in this context.

• Confirm the required columns and data types
• Identify the target/label column
• Handle missing or duplicate records if present
• Transform data into a suitable format
• Split it into training and validation/test datasets

1. Prepare the training data
2. Select an algorithm or configure AutoML
3. Train the model
4. Evaluate its performance
5. Tune hyperparameters if needed
6. Deploy the model

• Prevention costs – costs incurred to stop defects occurring, such as staff training, quality planning and supplier evaluation.
• Appraisal costs – costs of checking whether products meet standards, such as inspection, testing and quality audits.
• Internal failure costs – costs of defects found before delivery to customers, such as scrap, rework and retesting.
• External failure costs – costs of defects found after delivery, such as warranty claims, returns, complaints and product recalls.

• The identified risk
• Its likelihood and potential impact
• The person or team responsible for handling it
• The response or treatment plan
• Risk thresholds, such as when escalation or action is required
• Current status and review dates

• Risk tolerance: The amount of risk an organization is willing to accept; it is a concept or limit, not usually the primary documentation.
• Risk transfer: Moving the responsibility or financial impact of a risk to another party, such as through insurance.
• Risk analysis: The process of evaluating risk likelihood and impact.

• Reviewing security objectives to ensure they support business goals.
• Ensuring security requirements are integrated consistently across business units.
• Coordinating security policies, risk management, controls, and awareness activities.

• Executive management: Provides direction, funding, and support, but usually does not manage day-to-day security integration.
• Board of directors: Provides governance and oversight, not operational security coordination.
• Steering committee: Helps coordinate and prioritize initiatives, but the CISO typically owns the overall security program and ensures its integration.

• How quickly the vendor must respond to an incident or request
• Target resolution times
• Availability or uptime requirements
• Performance metrics and penalties for not meeting them

• SOW (Statement of Work): Describes the project’s scope, tasks, deliverables, and timeline.
• MOA (Memorandum of Agreement): Documents a formal agreement to cooperate or perform specific activities.
• MOU (Memorandum of Understanding): Records a mutual understanding or intent, often less binding than a contract.

• Two-part tariff pricing: $10 per unit
• Dual pricing: $20 per unit

Two-part tariff pricing

Dual pricing

• Division X, the seller, is credited with the market price: \(\$20\)
• Division Y, the buyer, is charged the marginal cost: \(\$10\)

• Periodic vulnerability assessments: Identify technical weaknesses but do not establish governance or ensure risks are managed.
• Established information security metrics: Help measure performance and report status, but measurement alone does not make governance effective.
• Advanced security technologies: Support security operations, but governance is primarily about direction, accountability, decision-making, and alignment with business objectives.