A Digital Developer wants to selectively retrieve products and process them from an iPhone. Which action should the Developer take, given that JavaScript controllers CANNOT be used?

Use import/export in Business Manager.
Create a webservice to retrieve products.
Use OCAPI and invoke it in native language.
Use WebDAV Client to retrieve products.

Answer(s): D

Show Answer Next Question

A Digital Developer must give users the ability to choose an occasion (holiday, birthday, anniversary, etc.) for which gifts are currently being selected. The data needs to be persistent throughout the current shopping experience.
Which data store variable is appropriate, assuming there is no need to store the selection in any system or custom objects?

Request scope variable
Page scope variable
Session scope variable
Content slot variable

Answer(s): C

Show Answer Next Question

QUESTION: 33

A Digital Developer suspects a logical error in a script. Which action will help locate the error?

Submit a support ticket to B2C Commerce.
Check request logs for evidence of the logical error.
Put breakpoints in the code, debug, and examine variable values.
Print all values in the script node called before the current script.

Answer(s): B

Show Answer Next Question

QUESTION: 34

Once the Cache Information tool of the storefront toolkit is enabled, how can a Digital Developer view caching information for a particular component of the page?

Hover over the caching icons now present on the storefront.
Open the Request Logs to view the caching information.
Start a pipeline debugging session and view the caching information provided.
Right-click on the component in UX Studio and view the caching properties of the file.

Answer(s): A

Show Answer Next Question

QUESTION: 35

A Digital Developer is working in a sandbox on a site named test-site using the domain test.demandware.net. The Developer needs to compile a url to make an Open Commerce API (OCAPI) request that returns product information.
By default, which URL format is a proper Open Commerce API for Sandbox?

https://test.demandware.com/dw/shop/products/M1355?client_id=aaa...
https://www.test.com/s/test-site/sfc/shop/products/M1355?client_id=aaa...
https://test.demandware.net/s/test-site/dw/shop/v18_3/products/M1355?client_id=aaa...
https://www.test.com/dw/shop/v18_3/products/M1355?client_id=aaa...

Answer(s): C

Show Answer Next Question

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CCD-102 AI Verifications

HUng on: September 09, 2026
It very good.
Ho Chi Minh City, Vietnam

Kapil on: June 06, 2026
Good to get idea of question asked
Udaipur, India

Kamlesh Panchal on: June 19, 2025
Q41 correct answer should be B and D. C option is incorrect as multi-threading improves performance.
UNITED STATES

Fernando on: December 24, 2024
Very cool and very helpful. Bought 2 exams with 50% discount.
Brazil

Cronjob on: August 26, 2026
At first I was nervous but the practice questions on this site helped me a lot.
Estonia

Quorum on: July 14, 2026
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Uruguay

John on: September 27, 2026
The exam was tougher than expected. The AI assistant helped me study well for it.
Chennai, India

Overclock on: July 08, 2026
The exam was hard but review helped.
Estonia

Sysctl on: August 13, 2026
I took my time with the prep but eventually passed this cert.
Norway

Firmware on: September 17, 2026
The exam was harder than I thought but with the practice questions here it was still okay.
Taiwan

VlanId on: July 24, 2026
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United States

Thread on: July 04, 2026
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Estonia

Socket on: July 09, 2026
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Brazil

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UAE

Shebang on: June 28, 2026
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Mutex on: September 19, 2026
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Italy

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Ireland

Bgp on: September 10, 2026
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Mexico

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France

Sshd on: August 15, 2026
It took a bit longer but finally passed the exam I spent weeks reviewing these questions slowly.
Belgium

Bashrc on: September 09, 2026
This exam was trickier than I thought.
Japan

Loopback on: August 16, 2026
Took me some time but I reviewed questions and passed.
Germany

Baud on: August 26, 2026
Juggling work and short study sessions it felt great to finally pass this cert.
United States

Bashrc on: August 29, 2026
Didn't feel ready but practice questions helped.
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Vimrc on: July 16, 2026
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Switzerland

Vimrc on: August 19, 2026
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Norway

Bytecode on: July 01, 2026
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Belgium

Subnet on: July 04, 2026
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Czech Republic

Shebang on: September 13, 2026
The exam was tough but these questions were spot on so I passed.
South Korea

Inode on: August 21, 2026
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Luxembourg

Tty on: September 01, 2026
Crammed with the help here, passed fine.
Switzerland

Jkurtz on: September 08, 2026
Question 4 is wrong, the payload is set to before the validation.
Los Angeles, United States

Bgp on: June 18, 2026
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Ireland

Bytecode on: August 21, 2026
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United States

Tcpdump on: September 15, 2026
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Costa Rica

Anycast on: July 29, 2026
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Canada

Socket on: June 18, 2026
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Norway

Regex on: September 23, 2026
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United States

Cgroups on: September 04, 2026
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United Kingdom

Packet on: September 07, 2026
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Netherlands

Bytecode on: September 18, 2026
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Portugal

Systemd on: July 13, 2026
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Estonia

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Slovenia

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Switzerland

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Brazil

Symlink on: August 27, 2026
These questions were a lifesaver.
Costa Rica

AI Explanation - verified by User8917 on: July 15, 2026
Question 32:
Question 32 answer: Session scope variable.
Why:

The user needs the chosen occasion to remain available as they navigate through the current shopping experience. Session scope stores data for the duration of the user’s session.

Request scope data is cleared with each HTTP request; Page scope only lasts for rendering a single page; Content slots are for page/content presentation, not user data.

Since you don’t want to persist the selection in system/custom objects, session scope is the right level: it preserves state across pages during the same session but isn’t stored long-term.

Dahegam, India

AI Explanation - verified by User3911 on: June 26, 2026
Question 9:
Question 9 answer: A and C — Enable cache information in the storefront toolkit and view the product list page cache settings in Administration > Manage Sites.
Why:

A: The Storefront Toolkit has a “Cache Information” feature that lets you see per-tile caching data for components like product tiles, so you can verify how long they’re cached.

C: The Product List Page cache settings are viewable in Admin > Manage Sites, letting you confirm the overall page caching configuration that affects product tiles.

Why not B: Technical Reports isn’t typically used to verify per-tile cache durations; it’s for broader performance reporting, not specific cache TTLs. Why not D: The template debugger shows rendering details, not actual cache durations for templates like producttile.isml.
Bengaluru, India

AI Explanation - verified by User7918 on: September 25, 2026
Question 10:
Answer: C — Split the Logged column using at as the delimiter.
The value:
2018-12-31 at 08:59
contains both a date and a time, so it is not directly suitable as a date column. Splitting on at produces two values:

2018-12-31 — the date

08:59 — the time

The date portion can then be assigned the Date data type. Once loaded into Power BI as a date, it can support the built-in date hierarchy, such as Year ? Quarter ? Month ? Day.
Why the other options are unsuitable:

Changing the original column to Date may fail because it still contains the text at and a time.

Extracting the last 11 characters does not isolate the date.

Extracting the first 11 characters gets the date plus a space, but the option does not specify changing the result to the Date type.

The answer key’s C is therefore the best choice, assuming the resulting date part is typed as Date.
Hendrik-Ido-Ambacht, The Netherlands

AI Explanation - verified by User9365 on: October 04, 2026
Question 1:
Question 1 isn’t included in the content provided here. The page begins with Question 9 and continues through Question 16.
Istanbul, Türkiye

AI Explanation - verified by User9407 on: September 24, 2026
Question 1:
The correct choices are C and D.

C. Case after-insert trigger that publishes a Platform Event

- A Case is created when the customer initiates an exchange or cancellation. - The trigger can identify the relevant Case type/status and publish a Platform Event. - The external analytics system subscribes to that event for near-real-time processing.

D. Custom Apex controller that publishes a Platform Event

- Clicking Authorize Exchange Product or Initiate Refund is a user-interface action, not necessarily a record insertion or update. - The menu action can call an Apex controller, which publishes a Platform Event representing the click.
Why the other choices are unsuitable:

A. Trigger with a callout: Salesforce triggers should not make direct synchronous callouts, and this tightly couples transaction processing to the external system.

B. Workflow Rule with Outbound Message: This can react to record changes, but it cannot reliably capture a user clicking a menu item. It also does not provide the same flexible event-driven model as Platform Events.

The key distinction is: Case creation is captured by a trigger; menu clicks are captured by the Apex code behind the action.
Hyderabad, India

AI Explanation - verified by User5118 on: September 15, 2026
Question 108:
Question 108 tests the dysfunctional effect of assessing a manager using ROI alone.

Existing expected ROI: 15%

New project ROI: 14%

Cost of capital: 12%

The manager will compare the project’s 14% with the division’s current 15% ROI. Because 14% is lower, investing would reduce the division’s overall ROI, so the manager is likely to reject the project.
However, from the company’s perspective, the project should be accepted because:

Project return = 14%

Cost of capital = 12%

It earns 2% more than the cost of capital, so it should increase shareholder value.

Therefore, ROI can encourage dysfunctional decision-making: the manager protects the reported divisional ROI, even though the project is economically beneficial.
The answer key shows A, but the image containing the individual true/false statements is not visible here, so I cannot identify exactly which statement is labelled A. The key principle is: a project should be accepted when its return exceeds the cost of capital, even if it lowers the division’s existing ROI.
Maseru, Lesotho

AI Explanation - verified by pikej74485 on: September 21, 2026
Question 199:
Correct answers: B and C

B — Both inner and outer classes can be declared as with sharing.

An outer class and its inner class can each explicitly specify their own sharing behavior.

C — Inner classes do not inherit sharing settings from the container class.

An inner class has an independent sharing declaration. If its behavior matters, declare with sharing or without sharing explicitly.
Example:

apex public with sharing class OuterClass { public with sharing class InnerClass { // Explicitly uses sharing rules } }

with sharing enforces record-level sharing rules, but it does not automatically enforce object permissions or field-level security.
Chennai, India

AI Explanation - verified by User5833 on: October 02, 2026
Question 17:
Correct answer: E. only new data added to the Eventhouse
When you enable OneLake availability for a KQL database, Fabric makes newly ingested data available in OneLake. It does not automatically backfill or copy the data that already exists in the Eventhouse.
Therefore:

Existing Eventhouse data: remains available only in the KQL database.

Data ingested after enabling the feature: is copied to OneLake and can be accessed through OneLake file explorer.

New databases: are irrelevant; the setting applies to the selected KQL database.

The exam clue is the timing: enabling OneLake availability affects future ingestion, not historical data.
Madison, United States

AI Explanation - verified by mengwalcien on: September 26, 2026
Question 285:
Question 285 has an issue: the answer key says B (255.255.255.192, /26), but C (255.255.255.224, /27) is the best answer if the goal is three subnets with 30 hosts each.

/27 (255.255.255.224)

- 32 total addresses per subnet - 30 usable host addresses - Creates 8 subnets from the original /24 - Exactly fits the requirement of 30 hosts per subnet

/26 (255.255.255.192)

- 64 total addresses per subnet - 62 usable hosts - Creates only 4 subnets - It can technically support three subnets, but wastes address space
The other choices do not fit:

/25: Creates only 2 subnets, not 3

/28: Provides only 14 usable hosts per subnet

Best exam answer: C, /27. The stated answer B is technically capable of supporting the hosts, but it is not the most efficient or precise choice.
Quezon City, Philippines

AI Explanation - verified by Tholang2016 on: September 11, 2026
Question 114:
The correct answers are A, C and E:

Future costs — Only costs occurring in the future can be affected by the investment decision. Past costs are sunk and irrelevant.

Incremental costs — These are additional costs caused by choosing the investment. They are relevant because they differ between alternatives.

Cash flows — Capital investment decisions are based on future cash inflows and outflows, usually discounted to present value.

The other options are incorrect:

Committed costs have already been agreed or incurred and generally cannot be changed by the decision.

Unavoidable costs will arise regardless of which option is selected, so they do not affect the choice.

A useful test is: a relevant cost must be a future cash flow that differs between alternatives.
Maseru, Lesotho

AI Explanation - verified by User7687 on: September 10, 2026
E is correct and D means nothing since "production server" is not a salesforce terminology
You’re right to challenge that. The stronger answer is B, C, and E, not B, C, and D.

B: Developer Edition has limited user, storage, and data-volume capacity, making realistic community testing difficult.

C: A Developer Edition org cannot contain sandboxes, so it cannot provide separate environments for development, integration, and UAT.

E: A standalone Developer Edition org is not part of the production org’s deployment path, so change sets cannot be used to deploy from it directly to that production org. The team would need Metadata API, Salesforce CLI, or another deployment method.

D is poorly worded and should not be treated as a sound Salesforce risk. “Production servers” is not the meaningful distinction for this architecture decision, and an org’s environment type alone is not a reliable basis for concluding that it will perform poorly.
So the page’s stated answer B, C, D appears incorrect; B, C, E better matches the risks described.
Marseille, France

AI Explanation - verified by User3169 on: September 12, 2026
Question 1:
Correct answer: B. Transfer
Buying cyber insurance transfers some of the financial risk to a third party—the insurance provider. If a covered incident occurs, the insurer may help pay for recovery, legal costs, notifications, or other losses.

Accept: Acknowledge the risk and take no additional action.

Transfer: Shift the risk or financial impact to another party, such as through insurance or a contract.

Mitigate: Reduce the likelihood or impact using controls, such as firewalls, training, or backups.

Avoid: Eliminate the activity that creates the risk.

Insurance does not remove the cyber risk itself; it primarily transfers the financial consequences.
Jonesboro, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User5421 on: September 25, 2026
Question 17:
Correct answer: D. 587
Port 587 is used for SMTP message submission, typically allowing email clients to send mail through a server using authentication and encryption such as STARTTLS.
Why the others are not best:

25 – Traditional SMTP server-to-server mail transfer; often blocked for client submission and not inherently secure.

110 – POP3 for receiving email; unencrypted by default.

143 – IMAP for accessing email; unencrypted by default.

587 – Authenticated email submission and commonly secured with TLS.

Exam tip: Port 587 is the standard answer for secure/authenticated outbound email submission. Secure versions of POP3 and IMAP use different ports, but those are not the choices here.
Naga, Philippines

AI Explanation - verified by User3452 on: October 05, 2026
Question 4:
Question 4 is truncated in the content provided—it ends at:
> “Project1 ... Tool invo...”
I can’t reliably explain the answer without seeing the actual question and answer choices. Please paste the complete text of Question 4, including all options.
Bengaluru, India

AI Explanation - verified by User8696 on: September 27, 2026
Question 17:
Correct answer: D. 587
Port 587 is commonly used for secure SMTP submission—sending email from a mail client to an email server. It typically uses authentication and can upgrade the connection to encryption with STARTTLS.
Why the others are incorrect:

25 — Traditional SMTP server-to-server mail delivery; often restricted and not the usual client submission port.

110 — POP3, used for retrieving email; normally unencrypted.

143 — IMAP, used for retrieving and synchronizing email; normally unencrypted.

Important nuance: Port 587 is not automatically encrypted merely because of its number; secure configuration generally requires STARTTLS. Port 465 is also associated with implicit TLS for SMTP, but it is not listed here.
Harlingen, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User3136 on: September 27, 2026
Question 97:
Correct answer: B. netstat
The administrator should first verify that the web server is listening on the expected TCP port and on the correct IP address/interface.

netstat -tuln can show listening TCP ports.

If the web service is not listening, or is bound only to 127.0.0.1, remote browsers cannot connect even though the server responds to ping.

Why the others are less appropriate:

traceroute: Tests the path to the server, but ping already confirms basic reachability.

tcpdump: Useful for detailed packet analysis, but it is more appropriate after checking whether a service is listening.

arp: Helps troubleshoot local IP-to-MAC resolution, not an application-layer web connection.

The question uses netstat; on many modern Linux systems, ss provides similar functionality.
Khulm, Afghanistan

AI Explanation - verified by ajaykamath69055 on: September 22, 2026
Question 26:
Correct answer: C — When custom logic needs to be applied at scale to array data objects.
In Databricks SQL, higher-order functions operate on complex data types such as arrays or maps. They accept another function—often a lambda expression—to apply custom logic to each element.
Common examples include:

transform() — modifies every element in an array

filter() — keeps elements matching a condition

exists() — checks whether any element matches

aggregate() — reduces array elements to one result

For example:

sql SELECT transform(scores, x -> x * 2) FROM student_scores;

This applies the custom calculation x * 2 to every value in the scores array.

A is incorrect because higher-order functions are mainly useful for nested or complex data.

B is incorrect because they do not convert logic into Python.

D is incorrect because their purpose is not to fix slow built-in functions, but to process arrays or maps with custom logic.

Chiyoda City, Japan

AI Explanation - verified by User3213 on: September 24, 2026
Question 178:
Correct answer: B. Digital signatures
A digital signature supports nonrepudiation because it:

Verifies the sender’s identity using their private key.

Confirms the transaction was not altered after signing.

Provides evidence that the signer approved or originated the transaction.

Why the others are weaker:

Digital certificates: Bind an identity to a public key, but do not themselves prove that a specific transaction was signed.

Encrypted passwords: Protect confidentiality or authentication, but generally do not provide transaction-level nonrepudiation.

One-time passwords: Authenticate a user for a session or transaction, but usually do not provide durable proof of who authorized the electronic record.

In exam questions, distinguish digital certificates—which support identity validation—from digital signatures, which provide the signed evidence needed for nonrepudiation.
Johannesburg, South Africa

AI Explanation - verified by User3485 on: October 05, 2026
Question 86:
Correct answer: OWASP
OWASP (Open Worldwide Application Security Project) publishes resources about common web application vulnerabilities and exploitation methods, especially the OWASP Top 10. It covers issues such as injection, broken access control, authentication failures, and security misconfiguration.
Why the others are less suitable:

STIX: A standardized format for exchanging cyber-threat intelligence.

OVAL: A language and framework for describing and assessing system vulnerabilities and configuration issues.

Threat intelligence feed: Provides current indicators or threat information, but is not specifically a reference for common application exploitation techniques.

CVE: A catalog of publicly disclosed vulnerabilities, identified by unique CVE numbers.

For this question, associate common application attack methods with OWASP, particularly the OWASP Top 10.
Toronto, Canada

AI Explanation - verified by User7412 on: September 14, 2026
Question 42:
Correct answer: B — Metadata
Image files can contain metadata, such as:

GPS coordinates

Date and time the image was taken

Camera or device information

Image dimensions and software used

Geolocation coordinates are commonly stored in the image’s EXIF metadata. An analyst can inspect this information during a forensic investigation.
Why the others are incorrect:

Log data: Records generated by systems or applications, not normally embedded in image files.

Encrypted data: Information intentionally encoded to prevent unauthorized access.

Sensitive data: A broad classification, not the specific type of information being extracted.

Biloxi, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User6020 on: September 23, 2026
Meaning of severity
Severity means the size or seriousness of the impact if a risk occurs.
In risk management:

Frequency/likelihood = how often or how likely the risk is to occur.

Severity/impact = how damaging or costly the consequences would be.

For example:

A minor equipment fault occurring frequently may have high frequency but low severity.

A major cyberattack occurring rarely may have low frequency but high severity.

A risk that happens often and causes substantial losses has high frequency and high severity.

Maseru, Lesotho

AI Explanation - verified by User1028 on: September 22, 2026
Question 2:
I can’t see the hotspot image, but based on the three statements shown, the intended selections are:

Yes — Microsoft Foundry provides a secure, governed environment for building and managing generative AI applications and agents. It brings together models, data, tools, evaluation, deployment, and monitoring.

Yes — Foundry is designed for enterprise workloads and supports scaling AI applications as usage grows. Scalability comes from the underlying Azure services and managed infrastructure.

Yes — Foundry can be used in solutions involving image recognition and computer vision. Applications can use vision-capable models and Azure AI vision capabilities for tasks such as image analysis, object detection, and OCR.

The important distinction is that Foundry is the development and management platform; specific capabilities such as vision may be provided by models or integrated Azure AI services rather than by Foundry as a single standalone model.
So, for the statements provided: Yes, Yes, Yes.
Chennai, India

AI Explanation - verified by User4666 on: September 17, 2026
Question 5:
Correct answer: No.
Azure virtual machines use the Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model, not Platform as a Service (PaaS).

IaaS: You deploy and manage virtual machines, including the operating system and installed software. Azure manages the physical datacenter, hosts, and networking infrastructure.

PaaS: Azure manages the infrastructure and operating system, while you deploy and manage your application code. Examples include Azure App Service and Azure Functions.

Therefore, recommending PaaS does not meet the requirement to deploy Azure virtual machines. The suitable model is IaaS, as stated in Question 6.
Lagos, Nigeria

AI Explanation - verified by User7779 on: October 09, 2026
Question 16:
For Question 16, the correct choices are:

Run the backup with WITH CHECKSUM

Store the backup on an SMB network share

Example:

sql BACKUP DATABASE DB1 TO DISK = '\\FileServer\SqlBackups\DB1_full.bak' WITH CHECKSUM;

For an online migration to Azure SQL Managed Instance using Azure Database Migration Service:

DMS does not create the SQL Server backups for you.

You must provide a valid full database backup.

You must continue taking transaction log backups while the source database remains online.

The full backup and subsequent log backups must be available in the SMB share that DMS can access.

WITH CHECKSUM enables backup checksum validation, helping detect backup corruption.

The important distinction is that this is not a BACPAC-based migration. It uses SQL Server backup and log-chain technology, allowing changes made during migration to be applied to the target and thereby minimizing downtime.
Singapore, Singapore

AI Explanation - verified by User7812 on: September 13, 2026
Question 16:
Correct answer: C — 5
A Microsoft 365 tenant can contain a maximum of five onmicrosoft.com domains. These are tenant-provided domains, such as:

contoso.onmicrosoft.com

contoso1.onmicrosoft.com

Additional onmicrosoft.com domains can be used as email address domains for users, groups, and other Microsoft 365 objects.
The other options are incorrect because Microsoft 365 allows more than one but limits the total to five. This limit is separate from the number of custom domains you can add, such as fabrikam.com or fabrikam.co.uk.
Exam tip: Distinguish between:

onmicrosoft.com domains: Maximum of five per tenant.

Custom domains: Domains that your organization owns and verifies in Microsoft 365.

Nagpur, India

AI Explanation - verified by neal.humphries2 on: September 24, 2026
Question 28:
Correct answer: A — To use empiricism, based on knowledge that comes from experience.
This is not usually presented as one of the core Lean Startup concepts applied in PRINCE2 Agile. Empiricism is more strongly associated with Scrum, where decisions are based on observation, inspection, and adaptation.
The other options are central Lean Startup ideas:

Build, measure, learn: Create something, assess real feedback or results, and adapt.

Minimum viable product (MVP): Produce the smallest useful version to test assumptions and reduce uncertainty.

Fail fast: Test ideas early so that unsuccessful approaches can be identified before significant time or cost is invested.

Therefore, the answer key’s A is consistent with the distinction between Lean Startup and Scrum concepts.
Sheffield, United Kingdom

AI Explanation - verified by User6133 on: September 20, 2026
Which of the following is a feature of a next-generation SIEM system?
Correct answer: B. Automated response actions
A next-generation SIEM combines log collection and correlation with advanced capabilities such as:

Behavioral and anomaly detection

Threat intelligence integration

User and entity behavior analytics

Automated response actions, often through SOAR integration

Why the others are less appropriate:

Virus signatures: Associated primarily with antivirus or endpoint protection.

Security agent deployment: Usually an endpoint-management or EDR function.

Vulnerability scanning: Typically performed by vulnerability-management tools, though a SIEM may integrate their results.

The key distinction is that a next-generation SIEM can help detect and automatically respond to threats, rather than only recording and displaying events.
Kissimmee, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User1572 on: September 18, 2026
Question 3:
Correct answer: Power BI dataset
The existing report already contains the imported Excel data and several measures. To create another report with minimal development effort, connect the new report to the existing report’s Power BI semantic model (dataset).
Why:

Power BI dataset — Reuses the existing tables, relationships, and measures. You mainly create new visualizations.

SharePoint folder — Connects to the source files, but you would need to rebuild the model and measures.

Power BI dataflows — Primarily provide reusable data preparation; they do not automatically provide the existing report’s measures and model.

Excel workbook — Requires reconnecting to and modeling the source data again.

This is an example of using a live connection to a published semantic model, which reduces duplication and development effort.
Cuiabá, Brazil

AI Explanation - verified by User7777 on: October 06, 2026
Question 6:
Correct answer: B. SLA (Service-Level Agreement)
An SLA defines measurable service expectations between a customer and a vendor. These commonly include:

Required response time

Resolution time

Availability or uptime

Support hours

Performance targets

Consequences if targets are missed

Why the others are incorrect:

SOW (Statement of Work): Defines the project’s scope, tasks, deliverables, and schedule.

MOA (Memorandum of Agreement): Describes the responsibilities and commitments between parties.

MOU (Memorandum of Understanding): Documents a general mutual understanding or intent, often before a formal agreement.

Therefore, the agreement that specifies how quickly a vendor must respond is an SLA.
Biloxi, United States

AI Explanation - verified by pikej74485 on: September 21, 2026
Question 81:
For the exam’s intended answer, choose A, C, and E:

A — Use a custom controller: An Apex class can contain the page’s logic.

C — Use a standard controller with extensions: The standard controller provides basic CRUD behavior, while an extension adds custom logic.

E — Use a standard controller: Useful when the page works mainly with one Salesforce object and needs standard functionality.

The key is treating a dashboard Visualforce page as requiring a controller-based implementation.
Important accuracy note: The answer key is questionable in general Visualforce terms. Visualforce can also use:

A page with no controller for static or controller-free content.

A custom controller with extensions; extensions are not limited only to standard controllers.

So A, B, C, D, and E can be valid Visualforce configurations generally. The stated three-answer key appears to depend on a dashboard-specific exam assumption that is not clearly expressed in the question.
Chennai, India

AI Explanation - verified by User3123 on: September 22, 2026
Question 516:
Correct answer: 32768 (A).
When STP is enabled on Huawei switches, the default bridge priority is 32768.

STP elects the switch with the lowest Bridge ID as the root bridge.

The Bridge ID consists mainly of bridge priority + MAC address.

If multiple switches have the same priority, the switch with the lower MAC address is preferred.

STP bridge priority values are configured in increments of 4096, such as 0, 4096, 8192, and so on. 32768 is the standard default value.

The other values are valid priority values, but they are not the default.
Puchong, Malaysia

AI Explanation - verified by User1465 on: September 20, 2026
Question 5:
The answer key shows C (Falcon Investigator), but I believe that is incorrect.
The best answer is A — Real Time Responder.
Connect to Host uses Falcon’s Real Time Response (RTR) capability, which allows an authorized user to interact with an endpoint and collect information that is not available directly in the Falcon console. The user must therefore have the appropriate Real Time Responder role or permissions.
Why the others are less suitable:

Endpoint Manager: manages hosts and sensor-related settings.

Falcon Investigator: supports investigation and analysis, but does not necessarily grant RTR access.

Remediation Manager: handles remediation-related actions rather than interactive host access.

Role names and permissions can vary by Falcon console version, so verify the exact RBAC mapping in your tenant.
Singapore, Singapore

AI Explanation - verified by User1442 on: October 07, 2026
Question 17:
Correct answer: C — Create three sales processes, three record types, and three page layouts.
Each team needs a distinct configuration:

Sales processes: Define the available Opportunity stages for each team.

Record types: Connect each team to its appropriate sales process and page layout.

Page layouts: Control which fields and related sections each team sees.

The three record types could represent:

Solar market team 1

Solar market team 2

Installation Services team

Why the other options are incorrect:

One sales process: Cannot provide different Opportunity stages for each team.

One page layout: Cannot provide different field arrangements or fields by team.

Three page layouts alone: Page layouts control fields, but not the available stages.

Mumbai, India

AI Explanation - verified by User8392 on: September 30, 2026
Question 42:
Correct answer: B — Metadata
Image files can contain metadata, which is information about the file rather than the visible image content. A common example is EXIF data, which may include:

GPS coordinates

Date and time the image was taken

Camera or device model

Exposure settings

Why the others are incorrect:

Log data: Records events or activities, such as system or application activity.

Encrypted data: Information intentionally encoded to prevent unauthorized access.

Sensitive data: A broad classification for information requiring protection; geolocation may be sensitive, but the technical type stored in the image is metadata.

Biloxi, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User8245 on: October 02, 2026
Question 16:
Correct answer: B — Peer-to-Peer (P2P) file-sharing applications
P2P applications are considered high risk because users download files directly from other users, often from unknown or untrusted sources. Those files may contain malware, viruses, spyware, or Trojan horses. P2P software can also expose internal systems or consume significant network bandwidth.
Why the others are less suitable:

Instant messaging/chat: Can be abused to send malicious links or attachments, but is not the answer most directly associated with high-risk file sharing.

E-mail: A common malware delivery method, but the question emphasizes an application type known for direct file exchange.

End-to-end applications: This describes communication protection or architecture, not a specific malware distribution risk.

A useful exam clue is that uncontrolled file sharing from unknown sources strongly points to P2P applications.
Phoenix, United States

AI Explanation - verified by de_jong_patri58 on: September 29, 2026
Question 154:
Question 154 is testing filter context in DAX.
A suitable measure is conceptually:

DAX Blue Sales = CALCULATE( [Total Sales], KEEPFILTERS('Product'[Color] = "Blue") )

CALCULATE evaluates [Total Sales] after applying an additional filter.

'Product'[Color] = "Blue" restricts the calculation to blue products.

KEEPFILTERS ensures the existing filter context is preserved. For example, filters for year, region, or customer remain active. If Color is already filtered, the blue condition is applied as an intersection rather than replacing the existing filter.

Avoid ALL, because it removes filters and would not maintain the existing context.

The answer image is not visible here, so I cannot identify the exact dropdown selections, but the key choices should correspond to CALCULATE, the sales measure, and a blue-color filter—using KEEPFILTERS if that option is provided.
Hendrik-Ido-Ambacht, The Netherlands

AI Explanation - verified by User8379 on: October 08, 2026
Question 6:
Correct answers: D and E

Customize Opportunity Contact Role

Add the Opportunity Contact Role related list to the Opportunity page layout

Why: Opportunity Contact Roles let users associate specific Contacts with an Opportunity and identify their involvement—for example, Decision Maker, Influencer, or Evaluator. This makes stakeholder information visible from the Opportunity and available for reporting.
Adding the related list lets sales reps create and view these relationships directly on the Opportunity record. Customizing the contact-role values ensures the organization has appropriate stakeholder roles.
Why the campaign options are incorrect: Campaign Member Role and Campaign Role describe a person’s involvement in a Campaign, not their relationship to a specific Opportunity. They would not meet the requirement to track Opportunity stakeholders.
Pune, India

AI Explanation - verified by User9108 on: September 28, 2026
Question 34:
Question 34 tests which connector supports Azure DevOps Analytics views and allows filtering to occur in the cloud.
Correct answer: Azure DevOps (Boards only)
Why:

The Azure DevOps (Boards only) connector is designed specifically for Azure DevOps Analytics views.

It authenticates directly to Azure DevOps and lets you select an existing Analytics view.

Filters defined in the Analytics view are applied by Azure DevOps before Power BI retrieves the data, reducing the amount of data transferred.

Why the others are less suitable:

Azure DevOps Server (Boards only) is for on-premises Azure DevOps Server.

OData Feed can consume OData endpoints, but it is not the dedicated Azure DevOps Analytics-view connector.

OData queries are not the intended dedicated connector for this requirement.

Note: The supplied answer key says A, but based on the listed option names, the intended answer appears to be Azure DevOps (Boards only).
Hendrik-Ido-Ambacht, The Netherlands

AI Explanation - verified by User8545 on: September 26, 2026
Can pcs with differet / or ip range can communicate with each other?
Yes, PCs in different IP ranges can communicate, but they usually need a router or Layer 3 switch to route traffic between their networks.
Example:

PC A: 192.168.1.10/24

PC B: 192.168.2.10/24

These are different subnets. They can communicate if:

Both PCs have a correct default gateway

A router or Layer 3 switch connects the subnets

Routing and firewall rules allow the traffic

Without a router, they generally cannot communicate directly because each PC believes the other is on a different network and sends the traffic to its gateway.
The /24 is the subnet prefix length. It determines which addresses are considered local. For example, with 192.168.1.0/24, addresses from 192.168.1.1 through 192.168.1.254 are in the same subnet. A PC at 192.168.2.x is outside that subnet.
Also, PCs in the same broad IP range may still be unable to communicate if VLANs, subnet masks, ACLs, or firewalls separate them.
Quezon City, Philippines

AI Explanation - verified by User1701 on: October 08, 2026
Question 22:
Correct answer: B — AAA
A RADIUS server provides Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting:

Authentication: Verifies who the user is.

Authorization: Determines what the authenticated user is allowed to access.

Accounting: Records activity such as login times and resource usage.

RADIUS is commonly used for centralized access control to network devices, VPNs, and wireless networks.
Why the others are incorrect:

CIA: Confidentiality, integrity, and availability—the three core security goals.

ACL: Access Control List, which defines permitted or denied traffic or access.

PEM: A certificate and key encoding format, not the primary function of RADIUS.

Abuja, Nigeria

AI Explanation - verified by User9594 on: September 23, 2026
Question 26:
Correct answer: C. Red team
A red team acts as an attacker and performs authorized attacks against systems to determine whether a known vulnerability can actually be exploited. This validates the vulnerability’s real-world impact.

Red team: Offensive security; attempts exploitation and simulates attackers.

Blue team: Defensive security; monitors, detects, and responds to attacks.

Purple team: Combines red- and blue-team activities to improve defenses, but is not the best direct answer here.

White team: Usually oversees or coordinates an exercise, including rules of engagement and scope.

The key phrase is “determine whether systems can be exploited”—that points to offensive testing by the red team.
San Jose, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User9732 on: September 15, 2026
Question 7:
Correct answer: B. Automated response actions
A next-generation SIEM does more than collect and correlate logs. It can use analytics, threat intelligence, and automation to identify threats and trigger response actions—often through integration with SOAR capabilities.
Why the others are incorrect:

Virus signatures: Primarily associated with antivirus or antimalware tools.

Security agent deployment: Usually handled by endpoint-management or endpoint-security platforms.

Vulnerability scanning: Performed by vulnerability-assessment tools, although a SIEM may ingest their results.

The key distinction is that next-generation SIEM systems can help detect, investigate, and automatically respond to security incidents.
New Orleans, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User4530 on: September 30, 2026
Question 3:
Question 3 is about configuring Azure Site Recovery (ASR) to replicate the on-premises Hyper-V VM VM1 to Azure.
The image/options are not visible here, so I can’t verify exactly what option A contains. However, the required components generally include:

Recovery Services vault — stores Site Recovery configuration and recovery metadata.

Hyper-V site — represents the on-premises Hyper-V environment.

Azure virtual network — the target network where the replicated VM will run after failover. Since Azure VMs already use the same virtual network, that VNet can be selected as the target.

Storage account or managed-disk target, depending on the ASR configuration and portal version.

Provider/agent on the Hyper-V server — enables replication from Hyper-V to Azure.

The key distinction is that this is not a VM backup question. Replication for disaster recovery requires Azure Site Recovery, whereas a Recovery Services vault alone is not sufficient unless ASR is configured within it.
Because the drag-and-drop image is missing, describe the objects shown in the answer area if you want an exact mapping.
Richmond, United Kingdom

AI Explanation - verified by User8372 on: September 28, 2026
Question 2:
Correct answer: D — Empowered the team to improve their processes, tools, and interactions to be more effective in delivery and removing impediments.
The team reported delays, but the project leader responded by telling them to fast-track all features. That increases pressure and work in progress without addressing the underlying impediments, leading to fewer completed features and lower quality.
In an agile environment, the leader should act as a servant leader:

Help the team identify the root causes of delays.

Empower the team to improve its workflow and practices.

Facilitate removal of impediments.

Avoid directing the team toward a solution without its involvement.

Protect quality and sustainable delivery rather than simply accelerating everything.

Why the other options are weaker:

A: An impediment log may help, but merely recording problems does not empower the team to solve them.

B: Directing the team to solutions conflicts with self-management.

C: Adding impediments to the product backlog may incorrectly treat internal obstacles as product features and delays their resolution.

The key concept is empowered, self-organizing teams supported by servant leadership.
Scientex Park, Malaysia

AI Explanation - verified by User4712 on: October 01, 2026
Question 41:
Correct answer: A — Configure the External access settings.
External access controls communication between your organization’s Teams users and people in other organizations. You can configure an allow list containing only the five suppliers’ email domains, such as supplier1.com.
Why the others are incorrect:

Guest access: Controls external users invited into your teams as guests. It is not the primary setting for restricting federated communication by domain.

Messaging policy: Controls messaging features, such as chat or message editing, rather than which organizations users can communicate with.

Org-wide Teams settings: Contains broad Teams-wide configuration, but domain-based external communication is configured under External access.

The key distinction is: External access = communication with external organizations; Guest access = collaboration inside your teams and channels.
Schongau, Germany

AI Explanation - verified by User5302 on: September 09, 2026
Question 77:
Correct answer: C. Channel configuration
Using multiple memory channels—such as dual-channel or quad-channel—allows the memory controller to access multiple RAM modules in parallel. This increases memory bandwidth, which is the amount of data that can be transferred per second.
Why the others are not best:

Error correction (ECC): Improves data reliability but does not maximize bandwidth.

RAM voltage: Increasing voltage may affect stability or speed, but it is not the primary method for increasing module bandwidth.

Physical module size: Refers to the capacity or form factor of the RAM, not its data-transfer bandwidth.

For a gaming system, install compatible modules in the motherboard’s recommended paired slots to enable dual-channel operation. Higher channel counts depend on the platform and motherboard.
Johannesburg, South Africa

AI Explanation - verified by User6368 on: September 30, 2026
Question 218:
Correct answer: B — The port priority
In STP, you can make one interface preferred for forwarding by changing its port priority. When STP compares paths to choose a root port, it considers:

Root path cost

Port priority

Port ID

A lower port-priority value is preferred. For example:

text interface GigabitEthernet0/1 spanning-tree vlan 10 port-priority 64

The default port priority is typically 128. The exact command and value depend on the STP mode and platform.
Why the others are incorrect:

Interface number: Helps form the port ID but is not normally configured as the preference value.

VLAN priority: Not used to select a preferred forwarding interface.

Hello time: Controls how often BPDUs are sent; it does not select a preferred port.

Birmingham, United Kingdom

AI Explanation - verified by User6794 on: September 12, 2026
Question 8:
The correct answers are A, B and C.
The manager:

Suspended an operator who refused to use unsafe equipment.

Paid another operator a bonus for using it.

Prioritised short-term productivity over employee safety.

This indicates a poor control environment and an inappropriate tone at the top.

A — Management is not particularly concerned with managing risks.

The manager knowingly allowed a significant health and safety risk to continue.

B — Employees will perceive that management does not care about health and safety risks.

Employees learn from management’s actions, not just its policies. The bonus sends a clear message that production is more important than safety.

C — The factory’s safety record is likely to be poor.

If unsafe behaviour is rewarded and safety concerns are punished, employees may stop reporting hazards and accidents are more likely.
D is incorrect: employees are being motivated to maintain productivity, but in an unsafe and inappropriate way. E is incorrect: the response is neither proportionate nor considered; the equipment should have been taken out of use until repaired.
Maseru, Lesotho

AI Explanation - verified by permits_patties.0z on: September 12, 2026
For this question the answer is wrong, it should be C
If you’re referring to Question 5, you’re right: C is the better answer, and the provided key showing A appears incorrect.

C: Develop the rule in the Rules Editor, define the events, match, and condition sections, then use the test rule feature. This directly validates the YARA-L rule without enabling it in production.

A: UDM Search can help investigate data and refine filters, but it does not fully test YARA-L logic—especially complex event joins, match windows, and conditions.

D is less appropriate because setting a rule live, even without alerting, can still involve production execution and is not the intended controlled testing workflow.
Riyadh, Saudi Arabia

AI Explanation - verified by User7812 on: September 13, 2026
Question 2:
Correct answer: C — From the Microsoft Entra Connect wizard, select _Customize synchronization options_.
Microsoft Entra Connect currently synchronizes only the LitwareAdmins OU. To add Montreal Users and Seattle Users, modify the synchronization scope:

Open the Microsoft Entra Connect wizard.

Select Configure.

Choose Customize synchronization options.

Authenticate when prompted.

On the Domain and OU filtering page, select:

- LitwareAdmins - Montreal Users - Seattle Users

Complete the wizard.

Why the other options are incorrect:

Start-ADSyncSyncCycle only starts synchronization; it does not change which OUs are included.

Manage federation configures federation settings, which are unrelated to OU filtering.

Add-ADSyncConnectorAttributeInclusion concerns connector attributes, not selecting additional OUs for synchronization.

Nagpur, India

What the CCD-102 Exam Tests and How to Pass It

The CCD-102 exam is designed for developers who specialize in building and maintaining e-commerce sites using the Salesforce B2C Commerce platform and the Storefront Reference Architecture (SFRA). Professionals who hold this Salesforce certification are typically responsible for implementing complex e-commerce solutions, customizing storefront functionality, and ensuring that the platform integrates seamlessly with other enterprise systems. Employers in the retail and digital commerce sectors actively seek out individuals with this credential because it validates a developer's ability to navigate the specific architecture of B2C Commerce, which is critical for maintaining high-performance online shopping experiences. By passing this certification exam, developers demonstrate that they possess the technical proficiency required to manage the lifecycle of a B2C site, from initial configuration to ongoing application development and data management.

What the CCD-102 Exam Covers

The exam evaluates a candidate's comprehensive understanding of the B2C Commerce ecosystem, requiring proficiency across several core domains. Candidates must demonstrate their ability to handle B2C Commerce setup, which involves configuring the environment and understanding the foundational architecture that supports a storefront. Furthermore, the exam tests the ability to work with a B2C site, ensuring developers can manage site preferences, content, and the various components that make up the user experience. Data management using Business Manager usage is another critical area, where candidates are expected to show they can effectively manipulate site data, manage catalogs, and utilize the tools provided by the platform to maintain data integrity. Finally, application development is a central theme, requiring a deep understanding of SFRA, controller logic, and the customization of templates to meet specific business requirements, all of which are reinforced through our extensive library of practice questions.

Among these domains, application development often presents the most significant challenge for candidates because it requires a practical, hands-on understanding of how to extend and customize the platform's core code. Developers must move beyond theoretical knowledge to understand how to implement custom controllers, work with ISML templates, and manage client-side assets within the SFRA framework. This section of the exam tests whether a candidate can write clean, efficient code that adheres to Salesforce best practices while avoiding common pitfalls that could impact site performance or security. Success in this area requires not just memorizing syntax, but understanding the architectural patterns that allow for scalable and maintainable e-commerce solutions.

Are These Real CCD-102 Exam Questions?

Our practice questions are sourced and verified by the community, consisting of IT professionals and recent test-takers who have sat for the actual Salesforce certification exam. Because these contributors have experienced the testing environment firsthand, our questions reflect what appears on the real exam, providing a realistic assessment of your current knowledge level. If you've been searching for CCD-102 exam dumps or braindump files, our community-verified practice questions offer something more valuable, each question is verified and explained by IT professionals who recently passed the exam. We prioritize accuracy and pedagogical value over simply providing a list of answers, ensuring that you are learning the underlying concepts rather than just memorizing patterns.

Community verification is the cornerstone of our platform, where users actively discuss answer choices, flag potentially incorrect information, and share context from their recent exam experiences. This collaborative process ensures that the content remains relevant and accurate, as the community works together to refine explanations and clarify complex topics. When a question is flagged or debated, it undergoes review to ensure that the final explanation aligns with the latest Salesforce documentation and exam objectives. This level of scrutiny is what makes our practice questions a reliable resource for your exam preparation, as you are learning from the collective wisdom of peers who have successfully navigated the certification process.

How to Prepare for the CCD-102 Exam

Effective exam preparation requires a balanced approach that combines hands-on experience with rigorous study of the official documentation. We strongly recommend that you spend time working within a B2C Commerce sandbox environment, as practical application is the only way to truly master the nuances of SFRA and Business Manager. Every practice question includes a free AI Tutor explanation that breaks down the reasoning behind the correct answer, so you understand the concept, not just the answer. By integrating this AI Tutor into your study routine, you can quickly identify knowledge gaps and focus your efforts on the areas where you need the most improvement, rather than wasting time on topics you have already mastered.

A common mistake candidates make is relying solely on rote memorization, which often fails when faced with the scenario-based questions typical of the CCD-102 exam. These questions require you to apply your knowledge to specific business problems, meaning you must understand the "why" behind a configuration or a line of code, not just the "what." To avoid this, create a structured study schedule that allocates time for both reading official Salesforce guides and engaging with our practice questions. Remember that time management is also a skill; as you work through our questions, try to simulate the pressure of the actual exam to ensure you can analyze and answer questions efficiently without rushing.

What to Expect on Exam Day

On the day of your certification exam, you should be prepared for a rigorous assessment that typically includes a mix of multiple-choice and scenario-based questions. These questions are designed to test your ability to apply technical knowledge to real-world e-commerce development challenges, often requiring you to select the best solution from several plausible-sounding options. The exam is administered in a secure environment, often via Pearson VUE, where you will be monitored to ensure the integrity of the testing process. While the specific number of questions and the passing score can vary based on the current version of the exam, you should expect to be tested thoroughly on all the official topics outlined by Salesforce, requiring a high level of focus and concentration throughout the duration of the test.

Who Should Use These CCD-102 Practice Questions

These practice questions are intended for developers who have hands-on experience with Salesforce B2C Commerce and are looking to formalize their expertise with a recognized certification. Typically, candidates should have a solid foundation in web development technologies and some experience working within the Salesforce ecosystem before attempting this exam. Whether you are a junior developer looking to validate your skills or a seasoned professional aiming to advance your career, this certification exam serves as a benchmark for your technical capabilities. Consistent exam preparation using our platform will help you build the confidence needed to succeed, ensuring you are well-versed in the specific requirements of the B2C Commerce Developer role.

To get the most out of these resources, do not simply read the answer and move on; engage deeply with the AI Tutor explanation and read the community discussions associated with each question. If you find yourself consistently getting a specific type of question wrong, flag it and revisit it later to ensure you have grasped the underlying concept. By actively participating in the learning process and utilizing the feedback provided by the community, you will be better equipped to handle the complexities of the actual test. Browse the questions above and use the community discussions and AI Tutor to build real exam confidence.

AI Tutor 👋 I’m here to help!

Salesforce CCD-102 Exam Prep B2C Commerce Developer with SFRA (Page 9 )

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QUESTION: 32

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QUESTION: 35

What the CCD-102 Exam Tests and How to Pass It

What the CCD-102 Exam Covers

Are These Real CCD-102 Exam Questions?

How to Prepare for the CCD-102 Exam

What to Expect on Exam Day

Who Should Use These CCD-102 Practice Questions

Salesforce CCD-102 Exam Prep
B2C Commerce Developer with SFRA (Page 9 )