SAP C_MDG_1909 Exam Prep
SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP Master Data Governance Exam (Page 2 )

• OpenID Connect (OIDC) is an authentication layer built on OAuth 2.0.
• It returns an ID token, normally a JWT containing identity claims such as the user’s subject, name, email, or other permitted attributes.
• The wellness application can consume those claims without needing a separate user-information call.

• JWT Bearer Token Flow: intended for server-to-server authorization and does not primarily provide an end-user ID token.
• Web Server Flow: is an OAuth authorization-code flow. It can be used with OIDC in some implementations, but “Web Server Flow” alone does not specifically guarantee an ID token.
• User Agent Flow: describes an OAuth flow, not the identity protocol itself.

• vSmart controls the overlay control plane. It uses OMP to exchange routing information, distribute policies, and determine how WAN Edge devices reach one another.
• vManage is the centralized management and configuration platform.
• vBond is the orchestrator. It helps devices authenticate, discover controllers, and traverse NAT during onboarding.
• APIC-EM is not the SD-WAN control-plane component described here.

• NIDS: Monitors network traffic for suspicious activity and network-based attacks targeting the application or its supporting services.
• HIPS: Protects an individual host by monitoring processes, files, and system activity. It can help secure the web server, but it is not focused specifically on the application’s network attack surface.
• SIEM: Aggregates and correlates logs; it does not directly prevent attacks.
• Honeypot: A decoy system, not the primary protection for a production web application.
• Certificate revocation list: Deals with certificate trust, not application exploitation.

• A: Configure security groups — Customers define inbound and outbound rules for resources such as Amazon EC2 instances.
• B: Classify company assets — Customers decide how their data and assets should be classified and protected.

• C: Amazon S3 is a regional service; customers select a Region, not individual Availability Zones for buckets.
• D: AWS manages the infrastructure and patching for Amazon DynamoDB.
• E: AWS manages the infrastructure used by AWS Lambda; customers do not select EC2 instances for Lambda functions.

Correct choices

• DB1: Azure Data Box Heavy
• Virtual machines: Azure Migrate

Why

• Replication with minimal downtime
• A test migration
• Final cutover after validation

• Resources that do not need internet access should remain on private network segments.
• Internet-facing access should be restricted to systems that require it.
• Access should be explicitly allowed rather than broadly exposed.

• A: A single administrator with access to core functions may violate least privilege if that access is broader than necessary.
• B: Inspecting traffic supports monitoring and defense, but does not itself limit privileges.
• C: Updating routing configurations supports availability and connectivity, not least privilege.

• Disaster recovery backups
• Long-term backup retention
• Data archiving that still needs occasional access

• Multi-Regional Storage: Intended for frequently accessed data needing broad geographic availability; it costs more.
• Regional Storage: Suitable for frequently accessed data within one region.
• Nearline Storage: Intended for data accessed roughly once per month, such as monthly backups.
• Coldline Storage: Better fit for backups accessed only during a disaster or occasional recovery event.

• Employees can work from any location, including remote sites and offices worldwide.
• Login can be relatively seamless after the device is registered.
• It does not require distributing additional physical authentication equipment.

• Geotagging: Identifies location, but location alone is not a strong authentication method and may prevent legitimate remote access.
• Smart cards: Provide strong authentication but require card readers and physical cards, increasing equipment and management requirements.
• Time-based logins: Typically involve one-time codes that users must enter, making the experience less seamless and potentially requiring a token or authenticator app.

• B — Reviewing the strategy: Usually performed by a security steering committee or other governance body.
• C — Communicating the strategy: The security manager may help communicate it, but communication is not the primary governance responsibility tested here.
• D — Approving the strategy: Approval belongs to executive management or the appropriate governing authority, not the person who develops it.

• Fileless malware: Nothing in the command indicates malware executing only in memory.
• Living-off-the-land binaries: Mimikatz is a credential-access tool, not a normal system utility used for LOLBin abuse.
• Social engineering: The command shows technical credential abuse, not manipulation of an accountant.

1. Modify the database subnet NACL inbound rules to allow traffic from the new web subnet’s CIDR block on the MySQL port (3306).
2. Modify the database subnet NACL outbound rules to allow return traffic to the new web subnet’s CIDR block on the required ephemeral port range.

• Digitally signing the software: Verifies authenticity and integrity. It does not hide how the software works.
• Limiting third-party libraries: May reduce dependencies and attack surface, but does not directly prevent reverse engineering.
• Using compile flags: Some compiler options can remove debugging information or optimize code, which may provide limited protection, but this is not the primary technique identified for preventing reverse engineering.

• Portfolio definition cycle — establishes and maintains the portfolio strategy, objectives, and management framework.
• Portfolio delivery cycle — coordinates and monitors the delivery of change initiatives, ensuring the portfolio remains aligned with strategic objectives and delivers value.

• Practice — a structured area of portfolio management activity, such as risk management or resource management.
• Technique — a method used to perform an activity; it is not the term for portfolio delivery itself.
• Principle — a guiding rule for effective portfolio management.

• A — Custom Button: A button can launch a flow, typically by passing the flow’s URL and record context.
• D — From a Process: A Process can invoke a flow using an Apex action configured for flow invocation. However, this is automation-triggered, not directly accessed by a user.
• B — Quick Action: In current Salesforce functionality, a Flow Quick Action can launch a screen flow directly from a record page. This makes B a valid modern method.
• C — Visual Workflow Launcher: This is not generally listed as a standard access method in current Salesforce terminology; Salesforce commonly uses the Flow component on Lightning pages instead.

• Azure Resource Manager (ARM) templates
• Or, in newer Azure terminology, Bicep files

• Disable default accounts: Default or unused accounts may have predictable names or credentials and can be abused by attackers. They should be disabled, removed, or secured with strong credentials where necessary.
• Remove unnecessary services: Every running service can contain vulnerabilities or provide an entry point. Removing services the server does not need reduces exposure.

• Add the server to the asset inventory: Important for asset management, but it does not directly harden the system.
• Document default passwords: Default passwords should be changed or disabled—not recorded for continued use.
• Send logs to the SIEM: Supports monitoring and detection, rather than directly reducing the attack surface.
• Join the corporate domain: A deployment/configuration decision, not inherently a hardening measure.

• Data loss prevention (DLP): Helps detect or prevent sensitive data from being copied or transmitted, but it does not primarily protect a stolen laptop’s stored data.
• Operating system hardening: Reduces vulnerabilities and attack surface but does not encrypt files if the device is stolen.
• Boot security: Helps ensure that only trusted software starts, but it does not fully protect the drive if an attacker accesses it offline.

• DB1 (500 TB): Azure Data Box Heavy

• Virtual machines: Azure Migrate

• The product is already in production.
• The organization is examining the product’s functions and cost drivers.
• The objective is to reduce cost without reducing perceived value or required quality.

• Kaizen costing focuses on continuous, usually incremental, cost reductions during the manufacturing stage. It is not specifically the systematic examination of a product’s functions.
• Standard costing compares actual costs with predetermined standards; it is a control technique, not a product redesign method.
• Process innovation concerns developing significantly improved production processes, rather than analysing the product’s functions and value.

• Code signing: Verifies the software’s authenticity and integrity; it does not hide the source code or prevent reverse engineering.
• Tokenization: Replaces sensitive data with tokens, mainly for protecting data such as payment information—not software logic.
• Blockchain: Provides a tamper-resistant record of transactions or data; it does not protect compiled code from analysis.

• What information each stakeholder needs
• When and how often it should be communicated
• Which format or channel should be used
• Who is responsible for communicating it

• A: The team should not decide stakeholder communications without first checking the established plan and CEO’s needs.
• B: An executive summary may be appropriate, but choosing a solution before reviewing the plan is premature.
• D: The stakeholder engagement plan addresses how to engage stakeholders, but this is primarily a communication planning issue.

• A: Describes a broad purpose and direction, but is not the specific CIMA definition.
• C: “Scoping out” activities is too vague and incomplete.
• D: Combines long-term goals, strategies and policies, but describes a wider strategic-planning statement rather than the definition of strategy itself.

• Authentication: Verifies a user’s identity, such as username and password.
• Authorization: Determines what the authenticated user is allowed to access.
• Accounting: Records connection and usage details, such as login time or session duration.

• CIA: Confidentiality, integrity, and availability are broad security objectives, not a specific RADIUS function.
• ACL: An access control list contains permit/deny rules on systems or network devices. RADIUS can support access decisions but is not itself an ACL.
• PEM: Privacy-Enhanced Mail is also associated with certificate and key encoding formats; it is unrelated to RADIUS’s primary purpose.

• Outer packet: 10.5.1.1 > 52.165.16.154
• IPv4 protocol field: 41, which indicates IPv6 encapsulation
• Inner packet: IPv6 traffic between 2001:... addresses

• MAC address spoofing: Changes Layer 2 addressing; it does not explain the IPv6-in-IPv4 structure.
• Steganography: Hides data inside files or media, not visibly in a tunneled protocol.
• Broken encryption: No evidence of encryption being cracked.
• On-path sniffing: Involves intercepting traffic, not sending data to an external host.

• Customer contains one row per customer and the customer’s Address ID.
• Address contains one row per address and the corresponding location details.

1. Select the Customer query.
2. Choose Merge Queries.
3. Match Customer[Address ID] with Address[Address ID].
4. Use a Left outer join so every customer is retained.
5. Expand the merged Address column and select City, State/Region, and Country.

• Append adds rows vertically and is used for tables with the same structure.
• Group By summarizes rows rather than adding related columns.
• Transpose switches rows and columns and does not establish a relationship.

• SAML: Enables federated authentication and single sign-on between the IdP and SaaS providers.
• OAuth tokens: Allow delegated application access; OAuth is not primarily the first step for employee SSO.
• Password vaulting: Stores or autofills multiple passwords but does not eliminate the separate credentials or provide true federation.

• BCP: Maintains essential business operations during and after disruption. It is broader than IT recovery, but the question focuses on restoring the destroyed data center.
• Communication plan: Defines how the organization communicates with staff, the public, and other stakeholders.
• IRP: Handles security incidents such as malware, unauthorized access, or data breaches—not physical disaster recovery.

• 16 VMs: one failure loses 25 GB and 10 cores—only 6.25% of memory.
• 8 VMs: one failure loses 12.5% of memory.
• 4 VMs: one failure loses 25%.
• 1 VM: one failure loses the entire application environment.

• Customer: Dual
• Date: Dual
• Sales: DirectQuery
• SalesAggregate: Import

• Sales – DirectQuery: Near-real-time data should not rely on an imported cache. DirectQuery sends queries to the source when visuals are loaded, allowing recent sales data to appear.
• SalesAggregate – Import: A weekly refresh is sufficient, and imported data generally gives faster visual performance because it is stored in Power BI’s in-memory cache.
• Customer and Date – Dual: These are dimension tables used with both the DirectQuery Sales table and the imported SalesAggregate table. Dual allows Power BI to use cached data when possible, while still behaving appropriately in queries involving DirectQuery data. This can improve performance and reduce unnecessary limited relationships.

• Each Azure VM must have at least one network interface (NIC).
• A single NIC can have:

• Therefore, each of the five VMs needs only one NIC:

• A vulnerability scanner automates discovery of known vulnerabilities and misconfigurations across systems. It can contribute to a supply-chain assessment.
• A penetration test actively attempts exploitation and is usually limited to an agreed scope.
• SCAP standardizes vulnerability and configuration assessment data; it is not the analysis itself.
• Illumination tool is not a commonly defined CompTIA Security+ term.

• Two-part tariff pricing: $10 per unit
• Dual pricing: $20 per unit

Two-part tariff pricing

Dual pricing

• Division X, the seller, is credited with the market price: \(\$20\)
• Division Y, the buyer, is charged the marginal cost: \(\$10\)

• A static IP gives the surveillance system a predictable local address, so users can reliably reach it on the LAN.
• However, a static IP does not block internet-based login attempts. If the router exposes the device through port forwarding, attackers could still reach it.
• Port mapping normally exposes an internal service externally, so A is a poor choice as written.
• Subnetting alone also does not block traffic; it would require routing/firewall rules.

• C — “when the query finishes”

• D — “when the query began”

1. Create a temporary Onboarding OU.
2. Move the new account into it.
3. Move the restrictive SCPs from the organization root to the Production OU.
4. Allow the account to update AWS Config.
5. Move the account into Production after onboarding.

• An SCP attached at the organization root applies to every account and OU beneath it.
• An SCP attached to the Production OU applies only to accounts in that OU.
• Therefore, moving the restrictive SCP from the root to Production temporarily exempts the onboarding account without weakening the policies for existing production accounts.
• Once onboarding is complete, moving the account into Production subjects it to the normal restrictions.

• Low usage during the first three weeks
• Very high usage during the last week

• High availability: Keeps services running despite failures.
• High latency: Means slow response times; it is not a benefit.
• Load balancing: Distributes traffic across resources but does not specifically address scaling resources up and down.

• Code suggestions: Inline completions as you write code, such as lines, functions, or blocks.
• Chat: An interactive interface for asking questions, explaining code, generating code, and helping with debugging.

• Knowledge Base: Not listed as a standard Copilot Individual IDE feature in this context.
• Pull Request Diff Analysis: More closely associated with GitHub-based code review or pull-request features, not the core Individual IDE extension capabilities.

• 10 TB with maximum I/O performance: Use EC2 instance store. It provides very high-throughput, low-latency local storage suitable for temporary video-processing data. The application must tolerate data loss because instance store is ephemeral.
• 300 TB of highly durable media: Use Amazon S3, which is designed for highly durable object storage and can scale to this size.
• 900 TB of inactive archival media: Use S3 Glacier, which provides lower-cost storage for data that is rarely accessed.

• A: Amazon EBS offers high performance but is not the best fit for the question’s “maximum possible I/O” requirement compared with local instance store.
• B: Amazon EFS is durable and shared, but is generally more expensive and less suitable for very large archival storage.
• C: Uses EC2 instance store for performance, but incorrectly uses EFS for the 300-TB durable tier and S3 rather than Glacier for archival data.

• The requirement is an assessment of the Azure environment’s design, which requires a support plan offering proactive architectural guidance.
• Premier support would provide this capability, but it is a high-cost option.
• Since the requirement says to minimize expenses, Premier is not the best recommendation.
• A lower-cost plan with the required advisory/design-review capability—historically Professional Direct in Azure’s support-plan model—would be more appropriate.

• Password spraying: Tries a few common passwords against many accounts; no indication of repeated login attempts.
• Remote-access Trojan (RAT): Could install malware, but it does not explain how the attacker obtained the administrator’s credentials.
• Dictionary attack: Tries words or common passwords against an account; again, the scenario specifically highlights Telnet’s lack of encryption.

• Transport and handling
• Storage and warehousing
• Refrigeration
• Shelf-stacking or replenishment
• Other costs directly attributable to product P

• tag=Priv searches the tag field for values beginning with Priv. The wildcard can match the remaining characters, so it matches Privileged.
• tag=Priv would search for the exact tag Priv, not Privileged.
• tag=priv* uses lowercase priv; tag matching is treated as case-sensitive here, so it may not match the tag Privileged.
• tag=privileged uses the wrong capitalization for the exact tag.

• Microservices: An application-design approach that divides an application into smaller services. It does not inherently reduce the number of operating systems.
• Virtualization: Creates virtual machines, but each VM generally requires its own complete operating system. This improves isolation but does not minimize OS instances as effectively.
• Infrastructure as code: Uses code to automate infrastructure deployment and configuration. It improves consistency but does not determine how many operating systems are used.

1. Which host originated the infection

1. Which remaining hosts are infected

text 
ip route vrf Customer1 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 global 
ip route vrf Customer2 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 global 
ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan10 
ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan20

• The route in Customer1 VRF provides a path back to the Customer2 subnet, 172.16.1.0/24.
• The route in Customer2 VRF provides a path to the FTP server, 192.168.1.200.
• The keyword global tells the router to resolve the next hop using the global routing table, enabling controlled route leaking between the VRF and global table.
• The global routes identify the VLAN interfaces used to reach each customer network.

• Exploitability
• Attack complexity
• Required privileges
• User interaction
• Impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability

• CVE: Identifies and tracks a specific vulnerability; it does not primarily measure severity.
• OSINT: Open-source intelligence gathered from publicly available sources.
• SOAR: Security orchestration, automation, and response technology used to automate security workflows.

• The Subscribe to Reports user permission.
• At least Viewer access to the report’s folder.
• Access to the report itself.

• Subscribe to Reports: Run Reports is not the relevant Salesforce permission.
• Chatter Subscribe to Reports is not a Salesforce permission.
• Set Running User relates to configuring the user whose permissions determine report results—not subscribing to a report.

• The requirement is to obtain an assessment of the Azure environment’s design.
• The proposed solution is the Premier support plan.
• Premier can provide this type of guidance, but it is a higher-tier, more expensive option.
• The question specifically says to keep costs to a minimum. A lower tier—typically Professional Direct in the support-plan model used by this question—provides architectural/design guidance.

• Reviewing and validating generated code
• Checking security, licensing, and quality concerns
• Testing the implementation
• Making the final design and coding decisions

• A: Copilot is not a complete replacement for developers.
• C: Human input, review, and oversight are still required.
• D: Copilot Chat supports many tasks beyond debugging, including explanation, generation, refactoring, and testing assistance.

• File hashes
• Strings and metadata
• Binary or code structure
• Known malicious patterns
• Embedded indicators or signatures

• Sandbox: Executes the file in an isolated environment; useful for observing behavior, but usually slower.
• Network traffic analysis: Examines communications generated by a system or application, not the file itself.
• Package monitoring: Tracks software packages or installations and is not the primary method for examining malware signatures.