SAP C_THR92_2311 Exam Actual Questions
SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP SuccessFactors People Analytics: Reporting 2H/2023 (Page 7 )

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• Prompts and Suggestions: Retained for 28 days
• User Engagement Data: Kept for Two Years

• Basic: Self-help only; no technical support or design assessment.
• Standard: Technical support, but not the full proactive architectural guidance required here.
• Professional Direct: Provides proactive guidance and architecture-related assistance.
• Premier: Also supports this, but is a more expensive, enterprise-level option.

• AWS IoT Greengrass supports local ML inference using models trained in Amazon SageMaker.
• The model and inference code run on the factory’s local server, so processing continues even when internet connectivity is unavailable.
• A Greengrass component can:

• This provides low latency and avoids sending images to AWS for every inference.

• A: Uses AWS-hosted services and therefore depends on internet connectivity. It would fail during an outage.
• C: Snowball Edge is unnecessary for this use case and adds deployment complexity. A local Greengrass server is the intended edge-inference solution.
• D: Amazon Monitron is designed for monitoring industrial equipment health, not analyzing camera images with a custom SageMaker model.

• '15' is a string. With + and a string, JavaScript does string concatenation: '15' + 10 -> '1510'.
• The result '1510' is then used in a multiplication: '1510' 2. The operator triggers numeric conversion, so '1510' becomes the number 1510.
• 1510 * 2 = 3020.

• If the code were let x = (15 + 10) * 2, the result would be 50 since 15 + 10 is numeric addition.

• This is a lookup relationship. Salesforce does not cascade access from a child (Opportunity) to its parent (Account) via implicit sharing.
• To view the Account, the user must have explicit access to the Account (via its OWD/sharing, or object permissions).

• The user has Read/View (or higher) on Account via profile/permission set.
• Manual sharing or a sharing rule grants that Account to the user.
• The Account is exposed by a broader permission like View All/Modify All on Account.
• Role hierarchy with Grant Access Using Hierarchies could grant access to Accounts owned by others, if applicable.

• IPv6 address types:

• The block FF00::/12 is a subset of the multicast space, so it represents multicast addresses.
• Therefore, this block forwards packets to a multicast address (to multiple receivers) rather than to a single unicast address.
• The other prefixes are unicast and would deliver to a single interface.

• A separate scope using a /32 subnet: A /32 identifies one host, but it is not a practical DHCP scope for this purpose.
• A static IP within the DHCP range: This can cause an IP address conflict if DHCP assigns that address to another device.
• SLAAC: Used for automatic IPv6 address configuration, not for assigning a predictable IPv4 address through DHCP.

• A (training data, hyperparameters, stakeholder feedback) focuses on training provenance; these details are important but are typically part of pre-deployment/training records, not the primary post-deployment documentation.
• B (encountered issues, monitoring process, risks) relates to governance and monitoring rather than the core documentation you’d publish about the deployed model itself.
• C (licensing information, the team, business goals) covers governance context but not the technical traceability and performance-based record needed for ongoing maintenance.

• Correct answer: C — The model is deployed at UK border checkpoints.

• The EU AI Act applies to AI systems used within the EU or by entities established in the EU. So:

• CAPWAP (Control And Provisioning of Wireless Access Points) creates a tunnel between the AP and the Wireless LAN Controller over the IP network. The AP and WLC communicate via this CAPWAP tunnel, which can traverse Layer 2 or Layer 3 networks.
• The AP does not have to be on the same switch as the WLC. It can connect to any switch in the network, as long as there is IP reachability between the AP and the WLC. This is why option D is correct.
• The other options are incorrect:

• Answer: D: Making business cases for improvement action

• Continual Improvement focuses on identifying and planning improvements and ensuring they’re funded and prioritized. Creating a business case for an improvement action is part of justifying and obtaining support/resources to implement improvements.
• A (Identifying the cause of incidents) aligns with Problem Management.
• B (Authorizing changes) aligns with Change Enablement.
• C (Logging/managing incidents that result in improvement opportunities) aligns with Incident Management, not Continual Improvement.

• A. Configure prompt modifications to enforce tone, disclaimers, and refusal behavior at the system level.

• D. Configure Power Platform DLP policies to restrict unauthorized data connectors.

• B: Manual topic-by-topic disclaimer edits are specifically discouraged.
• C: Channel settings do not replace agent-level Responsible AI controls.
• E: Publishing before enabling safety filters violates the stated deployment sequence. Responsible AI filters should be enabled before publication, not afterward.

• Amazon DynamoDB — Managed NoSQL database, not PostgreSQL.
• Amazon Athena — Serverless service for querying data in S3; intended for analytics, not OLTP.
• Amazon EMR — Managed cluster platform for big-data frameworks such as Hadoop and Spark.

• IaaS provides virtualized infrastructure, including VMs, disks, and networking. You manage the guest operating system and software installed on the VM.
• PaaS provides a managed platform for deploying applications without managing the underlying VMs or operating systems. Examples include Azure App Service and Azure Functions.

• Quick context: In a three-tier network (Access, Distribution, Core), roles are:

• Why A is correct: The Distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies. It often handles VLAN access (L2) and can perform inter-VLAN routing or connect to the core (L3). So it makes sense for the distribution layer to support both L2 and L3.

• Why B is correct: The Core layer is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail. It is built for high availability and redundancy, providing multiple paths so the network remains reachable even if some components fail.

• Why the others are not correct:

• Improve QA testing efficiency: A prototype may help discover defects early, but that is not its greatest benefit.
• Decrease time allocated for user testing and review: Prototyping usually requires additional user involvement and review, not less.
• Minimize scope changes: Prototypes can actually reveal new requirements or cause scope changes. However, discovering those changes early is beneficial.

• Custom domains
• 10 GB storage per web app
• Each app runs on dedicated compute
• Load balancing between instances is included
• Costs minimized

• Answer: A (Standard)

• Why:

• Note: In App Service, multiple apps in the same plan share compute resources. If you truly need isolation per app, you’d typically use separate App Service Plans, which increases cost beyond a single Standard plan.

• Answer: A

• Reason: The Standard web tier is the lowest tier that provides dedicated compute, built-in load balancing across instances, and sufficient storage to host multiple apps with custom domains. Basic may lack the required scalability/storage, while Free/Shared do not offer dedicated compute or proper load balancing.

• Permanent table (E): Correct. A dropped permanent table can be restored with UNDROP TABLE during its Time Travel retention period. Permanent tables also have Fail-safe protection.
• Transient table: It can also generally be restored during its shorter Time Travel period, although it has no Fail-safe. Therefore, excluding it makes the question questionable.
• Temporary table: Usually cannot be recovered after it is dropped; its lifecycle is limited to the session.
• Materialized view (D): The answer key treats it as recoverable, but recovery behavior depends on the specific Snowflake object/version capabilities. It should not be confused with an ordinary view.

• Goal: Guests should not use cameras, but company users can.
• Correct configuration: Guest access settings in the Org-wide settings.

• External access: Controls external-domain communication, not guest capabilities inside Teams.
• Teams settings in Org-wide settings: Too generic; doesn’t specifically target guest capabilities.
• Audio & Video in the default Meeting Policy: Would affect everyone assigned to that policy. To meet the requirement without impacting internal users, you’d need separate policies or guest-specific settings; the exam focuses on the guest-access policy.

• S3 Lifecycle rules automate actions such as transitioning objects to different storage classes or deleting old objects.
• S3 bucket policies control access permissions; they do not preserve earlier object versions.
• S3 server-side encryption protects data confidentiality by encrypting objects at rest, but it does not prevent deletion or overwriting.

• Accidental deletion or overwriting ? S3 Versioning
• Unauthorized access ? bucket policies and IAM
• Data encryption ? server-side encryption

• Elicited and documented customer requirements
• Converted them into clear, measurable specifications
• Validated the requirements with the customer
• Used them as the basis for design, quality checks, and acceptance

• A: Requirements should reflect the customer’s needs—not the supplier’s standards.
• B: Iteration review planning does not replace proper requirements collection.
• D: A retrospective occurs after work is completed and is mainly for process improvement, not initial requirements definition.

• If the account name includes the parsed search string, show the element; otherwise hide it.
• In CSS, to show an element you can set display to a visible value (commonly 'block' for block-level elements), and to hide you set display to 'none'.

• The ternary should map true to a visible display value and false to 'none'.
• Therefore the placeholder should be replaced with 'block' : 'none' (so the code becomes: accountName.includes(parsedSearchString) ? 'block' : 'none').

• There are several typos in the snippet (e.g., quesrySelectorAll, toLOwerCase, Style.display). In a working version you’d also fix those to document.querySelectorAll, account.innerHTML.toLowerCase(), and account.style.display.

• Sustainability is not a CAF perspective (it's not one of the CAF perspectives).
• Performance efficiency and Reliability are pillars of the AWS Well-Architected Framework, not CAF.

• A) MTU mismatch: OSPF neighbors must exchange Hello packets with a compatible MTU. If MTUs differ, the neighbor conversation fails and the adjacency cannot become Full.

• B) Incorrect subnet mask: Routers must be in the same IP subnet on the connected link to form a neighbor relationship. A subnet mismatch prevents Hello packets from being considered valid on the same network.

• D) Area ID not the same: Neighbors must share the same Area ID. A mismatch stops adjacency from forming beyond the 2-Way state.

• E) Different metric set on each end of the link: Cost differences do not prevent OSPF adjacency; they affect routing decisions, not neighbor formation.
• F) Router ID not defined: OSPF can auto-choose a router ID; an undefined ID is not a prerequisite for adjacency to reach Full.

• A. Implement retries with exponential backoff

• C. Reduce the frequency and/or size of requests

• B. Use PutRecord instead of PutRecords — PutRecord sends one record per call and does not remove the underlying throughput limitation. It may increase request overhead.
• D. Use Amazon SNS instead — SNS is not a direct fix for Kinesis shard throttling and changes the required streaming architecture.
• E. Reduce KCL consumers — KCL consumers read from Kinesis; they do not solve producer-side PutRecords throttling.

• Authenticating websites with TLS/HTTPS
• Enabling certificate-based VPN authentication
• Signing or encrypting email
• Supporting device or user authentication

• VLAN tagging: Uses network-frame tags, such as 802.1Q; it does not rely on X.509 certificates.
• LDAP: May integrate with PKI in some environments, but X.509 certificates are not most commonly associated with LDAP itself.
• MFA: Certificates can be one authentication factor, but X.509 is fundamentally a PKI technology.

• Pull: Downloads changes from the central repository and updates the local repository.
• Push: Sends local commits to the central repository.
• Commit: Records local changes in the repository’s history.
• Merge: Combines changes from different branches.
• Clone: Creates a new local copy of a repository.

• A — IDS attack signatures: An IDS generally detects suspicious network activity but does not necessarily scan uploaded PDF files or prevent them from being accepted.
• C — Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers; it does not inspect files for malware.
• D — WAF command-injection blocking: A WAF can help block web attacks such as command injection, SQL injection, and cross-site scripting, but this option does not specifically address malicious PDF uploads.

• What the dataflow options mean:

• Why C fits best:

• VMs without NGT: Not clearly a migration blocker on its own; NGT (Nutanix Guest Tools) status isn’t the typical gating factor for live migration during maintenance.
• VMs marked as an Agent: Not a standard, widely-known migration blocker; agents aren’t the typical reason a VM can’t be migrated.
• Memory Overcommitted VMs: While memory pressure can affect placement, memory overcommitment isn’t a fundamental reason a VM would be labeled non-migratable during maintenance.
• VMs with attached Volume Groups: This is the strongest candidate. A Volume Group is a set of volumes bound to a VM; moving the VM would entail relocating and reattaching those volumes, which can complicate or block live migration during maintenance.

• Answer: False. Agents and managers CAN create knowledge articles from Community questions.

• Why: In ServiceNow, a Community question can be converted into a Knowledge article using the Create Knowledge (or Convert to Knowledge) action. This allows what customers asked to become a reusable article for others.

• How it works (high level):

• Permissions: This ability depends on having the right roles/permissions (e.g., agents or knowledge managers). If you don’t see the option, check your role assignments or the knowledge-management configuration.

• Quick take: If a question in Community is valuable for others, a trained agent can turn it into a Knowledge article, making it available for self-service.

1. Download the updated VPN client configuration package from the Azure VPN gateway.
2. Remove or update the existing VPN client configuration on the Windows 10 workstation.
3. Install the new package and reconnect.

• Who performed the action
• What action occurred
• When it occurred
• Where it originated
• Whether it succeeded or failed

• Investigating suspicious activity: Important, but investigation depends on having adequate audit data first.
• Storage allocation: Necessary for retention, but storage does not help if the records lack meaningful details.
• Actions after audit failure: Part of operational planning, not the primary assessment of the application’s audit capability.

• wyjasnic istniejace pytania z tej strony,
• wskazac, dlaczego dana odpowiedz jest poprawna lub bledna (z uwzglednieniem celów egzaminu),
• omówic koncepcje zwiazane z Google Cloud AI.

• Amazon GuardDuty: Detects suspicious activity and threats using security-related data sources; it is not primarily a software vulnerability scanner.
• Amazon Detective: Helps investigate and analyze the root cause of security findings after an event.
• Amazon Cognito: Provides user authentication and authorization for applications.

Why B works

• AWS KMS keys are Regional resources. A normal customer managed key in Region A cannot be used directly in Region B.
• A customer managed multi-Region KMS key (MRK) has related key replicas in both Regions. The replicas share key material and key ID, although each has a Regional ARN.
• With client-side encryption, the application encrypts the data before storing it in S3. Cross-Region replication then copies already-encrypted objects, so S3 does not need to decrypt and re-encrypt them with a different Regional key.

Why the other choices are weaker

• A and C: SSE-S3 uses Amazon-managed S3 keys, not the required customer managed KMS key.
• D: SSE-KMS can work only if the solution creates and configures the appropriate KMS key or multi-Region key replica in each Region. As written, it says to create a customer managed KMS key in each Region, which implies separate keys—not the same KMS key. Replication also requires additional KMS permissions and destination encryption configuration.

• Assignment
• Decision
• Get Records
• Loop

• Screen flow: Would include a Screen element.
• Inactive version: Inactive status does not restrict the available elements.
• Activated version: Activation status also does not determine the toolbox contents.

• A — SCIM synchronizes changes to user attributes from the identity provider to GitHub.
• B — SCIM deactivates GitHub accounts when users are removed or deactivated in the identity provider.
• D — SCIM automates user provisioning when new users are added to the identity provider.

• C: SCIM does not delete organization repositories.
• E: SCIM does not generate REST API authentication tokens.
• F: SCIM handles identity lifecycle management, not repository permission configuration based on roles.

• The mapping and resolution of endpoint identities (EIDs) to their location (RLOCs) in an SD-Access fabric is handled by the control plane using the LISP protocol.
• Why not the others:

• Customers access the portal without needing a full Dynamics 365 license.
• They submit case information through portal forms.
• The submitted data is stored in Dataverse tables, such as the Case table.
• Security is controlled using web roles and table permissions, so customers can access only appropriate records.

• Dynamics 365 Connector — connects apps to Dynamics 365 data but is not the portal’s underlying data platform.
• Microsoft SharePoint — useful for documents and collaboration, not the standard case-management data source for portals.
• Microsoft Azure Storage — stores files or other data, but is not the native portal business-data platform.

• SageMaker endpoint: Not required because the model is being used through Amazon Bedrock.
• SageMaker Model Registry: Used for managing SageMaker models, not for making a Bedrock custom model available.
• Grant access in Amazon Bedrock: IAM permissions may still be needed, but granting access alone does not provide the required inference capacity.

• In the source query: apply UPPER() or LOWER() to the column.
• In Power Query Editor: use Text.Upper or Text.Lower on the column, then load.

• This fixes the root cause when comparisons/joins depend on case.
• In DirectQuery, transformations are pushed to the source or query layer; ensure the transformation is supported by your data source/connector.
• After normalization, verify relationships and any downstream visuals that rely on that column.

cmd 
powershell.exe -ExecutionPolicy Bypass -File C:\Scripts\Configure-VM.ps1

• GPO logon script: Runs only when a user logs on, so configuration may be delayed and is user-dependent.
• GPO startup script: Can work, but requires the VMs to be domain-joined and introduces GPO dependency. It is not specifically tied to Windows deployment.
• Place scripts in a VHD: Merely makes the files available; it does not execute them.

• It is a sequence of distinct phases that flow one after another (requirements ? design ? implementation ? verification ? maintenance).
• Requirements are defined up front and changes are costly; the project often requires formal sign-off before moving to the next phase.
• It emphasizes heavy documentation and minimal iteration after a phase is completed.

• Correct answer: enable SLAAC on an interface (C)

• Why the other options are not correct:

• Phishing can map to two MITRE ATT&CK tactics depending on the attacker’s objective.

• Therefore, phishing isn’t confined to a single tactic; it can serve both Reconnaissance and Initial Access, which is why option D (Reconnaissance, Initial Access) is correct.

• The two correct options are:

• The two incorrect options:

• Key concept: ALE = SLE × ARO

• SLE = $15,000
• Occurrences: 2 in 3 years ? ARO = 2/3 per year ˜ 0.6667

• ALE = $15,000 × 0.6667 ˜ $10,000 per year

• ALE is the expected annual loss, so it averages the losses over each year.
• This helps prioritize risk treatments by comparing ALE to the cost of controls.

• The correct permission is Manage Sandboxes (the official Salesforce name; the option in the list is written as “Manage Sandbox,” which is effectively the same idea but the canonical name uses the plural).
• Why: Sandboxes are a lifecycle feature. Only users with the explicit Manage Sandboxes permission can perform create, delete, refresh, or activate actions.
• Why the other options aren’t correct: