Scaled Agile SAFe-Agilist Exam Prep
SAFe Agilist (Page 7 )

• Tokens: Individual units of text processed by a model, such as words, subwords, or characters.
• Models: Systems that learn patterns and generate predictions or outputs.
• Binaries: Data represented using the binary number system, not semantic representations.

• Future costs — Only costs occurring in the future can be affected by the investment decision. Past costs are sunk and irrelevant.
• Incremental costs — These are additional costs caused by choosing the investment. They are relevant because they differ between alternatives.
• Cash flows — Capital investment decisions are based on future cash inflows and outflows, usually discounted to present value.

• Committed costs have already been agreed or incurred and generally cannot be changed by the decision.
• Unavoidable costs will arise regardless of which option is selected, so they do not affect the choice.

• A is valid:

apex 
  for (Account theAccount : AccountList) { 
      // process theAccount 
  }

• D is conceptually valid, using an index:

apex 
  for (Integer i = 0; i < AccountList.size(); i++) { 
      Account theAccount = AccountList[i]; 
  }

• B is invalid because for(AccountList) is not valid loop syntax.
• C is invalid because each item is an Account, not a List.

• Maintain head office control: Transfer pricing generally supports decentralisation rather than direct head-office control.
• Establish centralised decision making: This conflicts with divisional autonomy.
• Develop a top-down culture: Transfer pricing is intended to support empowered divisions and goal congruence, not impose purely top-down management.

• D — Value analysis: Correct. It examines an existing product to identify ways of reducing its cost while still providing the required functions, quality and reliability.
• E — Kaizen costing: Correct. It involves making continuous, small improvements and cost reductions while the product is already in production.

• Functional analysis: It is not limited to minimizing the cost of the originally defined functions. It examines what functions are required and how they can be provided at the lowest overall cost.
• Value engineering: Usually applies to the design and development of a new product, rather than being a fundamental redesign of existing organisational processes. That description is closer to business process re-engineering.
• Target costing: The target cost is generally established during the product development stage, before production begins. It is not continuously reset while the product is in production.

• Advanced Persistent Threat (APT): A sustained, targeted attack campaign or attacker group—not a vulnerability.
• Trojan: Malware disguised as legitimate software.
• Stealthware: A general term for malware designed to avoid detection; it does not specifically mean an unknown vulnerability.

• B — Incorporate contextual output encoding/escaping: Encode untrusted data based on its context—HTML, attribute, JavaScript, or URL—so the browser treats it as data rather than executable code.
• D — Run untrusted HTML input through an HTML sanitization engine: Sanitization removes or neutralizes dangerous elements and attributes, such as script-related content, while preserving safe HTML where needed.

• A: Enabling client-side scripts does not prevent XSS. Script restrictions may reduce risk in some environments, but “enable” is not a general XSS control.
• C: Cookie inspection is unrelated to preventing injected scripts.
• E: The SameSite cookie attribute primarily helps mitigate CSRF, not XSS. It should not generally be described as an XSS prevention measure.

• sn_si_admin is an SIR administrator role.
• The prefix helps prevent naming conflicts between applications.
• It does not refer to a “Secure Identity token” or an instance security check.

• Dataset file: Use Import mode. Excel files are imported into Power BI, and the two Sales tables can be combined with Power Query.
• Report file: Use a live connection to the published dataset. This keeps the report separate from the dataset and avoids importing the data again.

• Report file: DirectQuery/live connection
• Dataset file: Import

• A. PsFile — Correct: Displays files opened remotely on a system. This reveals shared resources and user activity.
• B. UserInfo — Correct: Gathers information about user accounts, supporting account and privilege enumeration.
• C. PsPasswd — Answer key lists it: This is questionable. PsPasswd is primarily used to change passwords remotely, not enumerate information. The key may classify it broadly as a Windows account-management tool, but it is not a strong enumeration example.
• D. WinSSLMiM — Incorrect: Used for SSL man-in-the-middle activity, not enumeration.

• Custom domains: Supported by Basic and higher tiers.
• Dedicated compute: Basic and Standard use dedicated virtual machine instances; Free and Shared use shared infrastructure.
• Load balancing between instances: Standard provides scaling across multiple instances with load balancing.
• Storage: Standard provides more storage than Basic.
• Cost: Standard is the least expensive option that satisfies all the stated requirements.

• Free/Shared: Use shared compute and have limited features; they don’t meet the dedicated-compute requirement.
• Basic: Provides dedicated compute and custom domains, but does not provide the required Standard-level multi-instance capabilities in the exam’s feature comparison.

• Prevention costs: Avoiding defects, such as staff training and improved product design. The company has invested in these.
• Appraisal costs: Detecting defects before products reach customers, such as inspection and testing. The planned batch sampling has not been implemented.
• Internal failure costs: Correcting defects found before delivery.
• External failure costs: Dealing with defects after delivery, such as refunds, replacements, complaints and lost sales.

• A is correct: It establishes the revised dates and identifies the effect on the critical path.
• B is premature: Stakeholders should be informed after the impact has been assessed and the updated schedule is understood.
• C is not automatically appropriate: Fast-tracking may introduce additional risk and should be considered only after analyzing schedule options.
• D is premature: Adding resources may not resolve a dependency and could increase costs without addressing the actual constraint.

• The load balancer provides the listener’s frontend IP address.
• The active SQL Server node must also respond to that same listener IP.
• Enabling Floating IP allows the listener IP to be preserved and handled correctly by the active replica.
• Without it, SQL connections may be sent to a node that cannot correctly claim the listener address.

• A health probe for the SQL Server port
• A load-balancing rule using the listener port
• Floating IP enabled on that rule

• Existing measures
• Relationships
• Calculated columns
• Tables and fields
• Existing transformations in the model

• SharePoint folder: Reconnects to the source files. You would likely need to recreate the model and measures.
• Power BI dataflows: Primarily provide reusable data preparation and storage, but they do not automatically provide the existing semantic model and measures.
• Excel workbook: Connects directly to the source file and would also require rebuilding the model and measures.

• Company documents
• Databases
• Knowledge bases
• Current web or business data

• A: Describes diversity and inclusive design, not grounding.
• B: Describes explainability or model interpretability.
• D: Describes documenting a model’s capabilities and limitations.

• A: CEO-sponsored formal policy — demonstrates executive support, but sponsorship at one point in time may not sustain commitment.
• B: Security awareness training — primarily improves employee behavior, not senior management commitment.
• C: Periodic alignment reviews — ongoing reviews show that security remains relevant, supports business priorities, and uses resources appropriately.
• D: Senior management signoff on the strategy — useful for governance and accountability, but signoff is generally a one-time event.

• CPU: Number of virtual CPUs and, where applicable, CPU reservations.
• Memory: Amount of memory and memory reservations.

• Network interface: Usually configured through the VM or workload networking configuration.
• PCI devices: Specialized hardware and not a standard VM Class resource in this context.
• Storage: Typically selected through storage policies or the VM’s storage configuration.

• 255.255.255.128 = /25: 128 total, 126 usable
• 255.255.255.192 = /26: 64 total, 62 usable
• 255.255.255.224 = /27: 32 total, 30 usable
• 255.255.255.240 = /28: 16 total, 14 usable

• One for the network address
• One for the broadcast address

• 8 total addresses
• 6 usable addresses
• Mask: 255.255.255.248

• Response and resolution times
• Availability or uptime
• Performance targets
• Support obligations
• Penalties for failing to meet commitments

• SOW (Statement of Work): Describes the work, deliverables, scope, and tasks.
• MOA (Memorandum of Agreement): Documents a formal agreement about roles or responsibilities.
• MOU (Memorandum of Understanding): Records a general mutual understanding, often without detailed service metrics.

• Crash cart: Provides local physical access, not remote access.
• Jump box: A secured intermediary used to reach devices over the normal network; it may be inaccessible if the appliance has not booted.
• Secure Shell (SSH): Requires the device’s operating system and network services to be running properly.

• Keep earlier prompt versions.
• Identify the last version that produced acceptable output.
• Restore it as a baseline.
• Make small, controlled changes—ideally one significant change at a time.
• Test the output after each change.

• A: Discards useful information about what worked.
• B: Large simultaneous changes make it difficult to identify the cause of problems.
• D: Accepts output that does not meet the requirements.

• A — Improved management of storage space: Correct.

• B — Improved supplier relationships: Correct.

• C — Improved pricing decisions: Correct.

• D — Non-product-specific costs must be apportioned: Incorrect.

• E — Profitability of each customer group: Incorrect.

• Reporting relationships
• Organizational structures
• Leadership styles
• Team maturity
• Individual and group behavior
• Communication and motivation

• Acquire Project Team: Focuses on obtaining the people needed for the project.
• Develop Project Team: Focuses on improving team skills, relationships, and performance.
• Manage Project Team: Focuses on tracking performance, resolving issues, and managing changes within the team.

• terraform init is normally required first, especially for a new or changed working directory. It installs providers/modules and configures the backend.
• terraform plan previews the proposed changes.
• terraform apply applies those changes. It also creates a plan internally if you have not supplied a saved plan.

text 
terraform init 
terraform validate       # optional but recommended 
terraform plan 
terraform apply

• Tracking who accessed or changed customer information
• Detecting unauthorized activity
• Supporting accountability and investigations
• Providing evidence for compliance and incident response

• Single sign-on not enabled: SSO improves convenience and centralized authentication, but it is not essential for access control.
• Complex passwords not required: This weakens authentication, but other controls may reduce the risk.
• Security baseline not consistently applied: A concern, but it is less specific and less immediately damaging than having no activity records at all.

• B — AWS DataSync: Transfers data between storage systems. It is not a marketplace or integration service for third-party datasets.
• C — Kinesis Data Streams and CodeCommit: CodeCommit stores source code, not third-party analytical datasets. Kinesis is for streaming data, not retrieving datasets from repositories.
• D — Kinesis Data Streams and ECR: Amazon ECR stores container images, not third-party datasets.

• Accept: Acknowledging the risk without taking additional action.
• Transfer: Moving the risk’s financial impact to a third party, such as an insurer.
• Mitigate: Reducing the likelihood or impact through controls, such as patching or employee training.
• Avoid: Eliminating the activity that creates the risk.

• D — Managers focus on keeping costs low in the short term to maximise profits.

• E — Managers are given incentives to meet or undercut budgets.

• F — Managers delegate responsibility simply to reduce their workload.

• B — Notify affected business units: Notification should follow an initial determination of scope and impact; otherwise, the organization may communicate incomplete or inaccurate requirements.
• C — Assess noncompliance risk: Risk assessment requires understanding the regulation’s requirements first.
• D — Inform senior management: Management should be informed, but with a clear summary of the regulation’s impact, risks, and recommended actions.

• Shared capacity

• Fabric capacity — F SKUs

• Fabric trial capacity

• Existing Power BI Premium — P SKUs

• Technical platform interfaces: Important for integration and interoperability, but they should support—not drive—the architecture.
• Scalability of the network: Valuable as the organization grows, but a scalable solution is ineffective if it does not meet business or security needs.
• Development methodologies: Relevant to implementation, but they do not define the organization’s fundamental security requirements.

• A. IDS attack signatures: An IDS mainly detects suspicious network traffic. It is not the best control for scanning uploaded documents.
• C. Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers and can improve availability, but does not specifically detect malware.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications from attacks such as SQL injection and command injection. It may inspect web requests, but malware scanning of PDF files is not its primary function.

• Highly polished, organization-wide presentations
• Advanced dashboard design and customization
• Broader business-user distribution and interaction
• Specialized BI governance and modeling features

• Lead investigator: Coordinates the investigation and directs the response.
• Information security representative: Provides security expertise and helps assess the incident.
• Technical representative: Preserves system evidence, takes forensic backups, and supports technical analysis.
• Legal representative: Advises on legal, regulatory, privacy, and evidence-handling requirements.

• Amazon SageMaker — charges apply for compute, storage, and other resources used.
• AWS Config — generally charges for configuration recording and rule evaluations.
• Amazon CloudWatch — has a limited free tier, but many metrics, logs, alarms, and API usage can incur charges.

Why A is the best fit

Why the other options are weaker

• B — Create alerts in Dynamics 365 Finance: Alerts notify users about changes; they do not calculate tax.
• C — Implement the Common Data Model: CDM standardizes data structures but does not provide tax-calculation logic.
• D — Run a Power BI report: Power BI is primarily for analysis and reporting. A report might display tax rates, but it would not normally calculate and apply tax to sales orders operationally.
• E — Write scripts and code: This could work, but it is less aligned with the requirement for a quick, cost-effective implementation because custom development requires more time and maintenance.

• The users currently have Office 365 Enterprise E3 licenses assigned directly.
• Assigning Microsoft 365 Enterprise E5 through a group does not automatically remove their directly assigned E3 licenses.
• From the Licenses blade, you can select the E3 product and remove it from all assigned users in one operation. This requires less effort than editing 2,500 users individually.

• Identity Governance manages access reviews, entitlement management, and related governance—not bulk license removal.
• Set-AzureAdUser does not remove product licenses.
• Set-WindowsProductKey applies Windows product keys and is unrelated to Microsoft 365 licensing.

• Malware or malicious software
• Command-and-control tools
• Internet surveillance and intrusion software

• ITAR: A U.S. regulation controlling defense-related articles and services; it is not the international arrangement described.
• Palermo Convention: Focuses on transnational organized crime and related protocols, not export controls for cyber weapons.
• GDPR: European data-protection and privacy legislation.

• CHAP: Uses a challenge-response exchange, so the password is not directly transmitted.
• IPsec: Provides authentication, integrity, and encryption for IP communications.
• EAP: An authentication framework that supports stronger methods, such as certificates or token-based authentication.

• Virus signatures: Primarily associated with antivirus or antimalware tools.
• Security agent deployment: Usually handled by endpoint-management or endpoint-security platforms.
• Vulnerability scanning: Performed by vulnerability-assessment tools, although a SIEM may ingest their results.

• Amazon EC2 instances — ???????? ?? ?? ??????? CPU, memory ??? instance size ???????? ???????
• AWS Lambda functions — memory configuration ?????????? ???????
• Amazon EBS volumes — volume type ?? size optimize ???? ???????
• ??????? ECS workloads — resource configuration ? cost optimization-?? ???????

• Memory ? compute usage ?????????? ???? custom code ????? ???? development ? maintenance ??????
• Cost allocation tags ???? ????? ??? ?????? ???? ??????? ???; inefficient resource ??????? ?? recommendation ???? ???
• CloudTrail resource ???? ?? API activity ??????, resource utilization ????

• If the attachment is safe, it is released to the user.
• If malware is detected, the attachment is blocked or removed according to the policy.
• This reduces delivery delays without disabling malware scanning.

• Replace removes the original attachment and replaces it with a text file explaining that it was blocked. It does not primarily optimize delivery time.
• Block and Enable redirect blocks messages with suspicious attachments and can redirect them for review; it does not provide the required faster delivery experience.
• Monitor and Enable redirect is for observation and does not reliably block malicious attachments.

• A. Remove rows where Sales[Status] is Canceled

• E. Remove Sales[Canceled Date]

• B: Removing Sales_Date would remove information users need—the date portion.
• C: Changing Delivery_Time to Integer could alter its meaning or precision and is not necessarily safe.
• D: Splitting the date/time column creates additional columns rather than simply removing unnecessary data.

• Customer needs: Primary focus in agile; guides prioritization and decision-making.
• Organization’s needs: Important constraints, but processes should be tailored when they create waste.
• Agile lead/project manager: Their role is to facilitate value delivery, not prioritize their own preferences.

• MFA: Protects sign-in and authentication.
• Azure Key Vault: Protects deployment secrets and credentials.
• Answer: No (B).

• C — Before update
• D — Before insert

apex 
trigger AccountTrigger on Account (before insert, before update) { 
    for (Account acct : Trigger.new) { 
        acct.Description = 'Updated automatically'; 
    } 
}

• In after insert and after update, Trigger.new records are read-only.
• Use after triggers when you need the record’s final database Id or want to create/update related records.
• Attempting to change a field directly in an after trigger causes a read-only error.

• Atomicity: a write fully succeeds or does not appear.
• Consistency: table state remains valid.
• Isolation: concurrent operations do not corrupt one another.
• Durability: committed changes persist.

• Flexible schemas: common data lakes often support flexible or schema-on-read data.
• Open-source formats: common data lakes commonly use open formats such as Parquet.
• Scalable storage: cloud data lakes already provide scalable storage.

• B — The most significant risks are held by SQ.

• C — SQ should recognise the cars as inventory.

• F — SQ recognises revenue when LM sells a car to a third party.

• A: LM does not hold the most significant risks.
• D: LM does not recognise the cars as inventory.
• E: SQ should not recognise revenue when cars are merely delivered to LM.

Why this is correct

• Each user authenticates with their own Google account.
• Google manages the user’s SSH key association.
• IAM controls who can access instances.
• Access can be audited by user identity, so security can determine who accessed a VM.
• Granting the role to a Google group avoids managing permissions individually.

Why the others don’t apply

• A: A shared private key is difficult to distribute securely and cannot reliably identify which employee used it.
• B: Manually collecting and deploying keys on every instance is operationally inefficient and complicates auditing.
• D: A project-wide shared key has the same identity and key-management problems as option A. It also does not provide per-user accountability.