Snowflake GES-C01 Exam Actual Questions
SnowPro Specialty Gen AI (Page 11 )

cmd 
powershell.exe -ExecutionPolicy Bypass -File C:\Scripts\Configure-VM.ps1

• GPO logon script: Runs only when a user logs on, so configuration may be delayed and is user-dependent.
• GPO startup script: Can work, but requires the VMs to be domain-joined and introduces GPO dependency. It is not specifically tied to Windows deployment.
• Place scripts in a VHD: Merely makes the files available; it does not execute them.

• Security Development Operations (SDO): a security-focused take on DevOps, integrating security into the development pipeline.
• Service Data Object (SDO): a data representation used in some middleware or enterprise apps.
• Software-Defined Overlay (SDO): a networking overlay concept.
• Secure Data Object: a generic data-security term.

• Correct answer: A) Hashing

• Why: Hashing produces a fixed-size digest of the software. If the final build is altered in any way, the hash will change, enabling you to detect tampering by comparing the stored digest with a freshly computed one.

• Why not the others:

• C — Schema.describeSObjects(new String[]{myObject})[0].fields.getMap()

• D — Schema.getGlobalDescribe().get(myObject).getDescribe().fields.getMap()

• A: sObjectType is not used this way, and fieldSet() is not the appropriate method for retrieving all fields.
• B: mySObject.myObject is not valid dynamic Apex syntax.

• Multi-factor authentication
• A secure password change for users whose credentials may be compromised

• The diagnostic output shows that the protocol is TCP (proto=6) and the session state is 2.
• In FortiGate’s session output, state=2 maps to SYN_SENT. This means the TCP SYN has been sent but the handshake hasn’t completed yet.
• Therefore, the session is not ESTABLISHED, FIN/ACK-related states, or other states; it’s in SYN_SENT.

• Improve QA testing efficiency: A prototype may help discover defects early, but that is not its greatest benefit.
• Decrease time allocated for user testing and review: Prototyping usually requires additional user involvement and review, not less.
• Minimize scope changes: Prototypes can actually reveal new requirements or cause scope changes. However, discovering those changes early is beneficial.

• Automation handles repetitive tasks, and orchestration coordinates responses across tools (SIEM, SOAR, EDR, etc.).
• This allows the security team to process more events with the same number of people, improving throughput and response times.
• Analysts can focus on more complex tasks like investigation and threat hunting instead of manual triage.

• It increases complexity: automation can reduce complexity when well-implemented; complexity is not the main intended benefit.
• It removes technical debt: automation/OR focuses on current incident response efficiency, not primarily on architectural debt.
• It adds additional guard rails: governance is important but not the core value of automation/orchestration within a SIEM.

• The correct answer: C. Tokenization

• Why:

• Why the others are weaker:

• According to the provided answer key, the four options are: Upload File, User Criteria, HR Profiles, HR Criteria (options B, D, F, G).

• Upload File: Filter by a file you upload (e.g., CSV) that provides data for bulk case creation.
• User Criteria: Filter by criteria related to users (e.g., role, department) to select target users.
• HR Profiles: Filter by HR profile data associated with users.
• HR Criteria: Filter by HR-related criteria or attributes.

• Dynamics 365 Remote Assist — used for remote collaboration and mixed-reality scenarios.
• Dynamics 365 Finance — supports financial and operational management.
• Dynamics 365 Business Central — designed primarily for small and medium-sized businesses’ finance and operations.
• Dynamics 365 for Phones — provides mobile access to Dynamics 365 apps, including Sales, through the mobile Unified Interface.

• The first step in risk management is to understand objectives, constraints, and drivers from those who care about the project. This stakeholder engagement helps identify what could go wrong and what risks are most critical.
• Only after you’ve gathered input from stakeholders should you identify risks and document them in the risk register. Updating the risk register (option C) is important, but it comes after identifying and analyzing risks.
• Options B (ensure resources) and D (revise the risk management plan) are actions that may follow once risks are identified and understood; they’re not the initial step.

• The correct answer: B) Synthetic identity theft.

• Synthetic identity theft involves creating a new, forged identity by combining information from multiple real people (e.g., names, dates of birth, SSNs) to commit fraud.
• In the scenario, Adam “created a new identity by obtaining information from different victims,” which matches the idea of synthesizing data to form a fake person.

• Medical identity theft: using someone’s medical information to obtain care or services.
• Tax identity theft: using someone’s personal info to file fraudulent tax returns.
• Social identity theft: impersonating someone to deceive others socially or publicly.

• Look for phrases like “create a new identity” or “combine information from multiple people” to identify synthetic identity theft.

• Box 1: Azure Lighthouse — ??? ??????? ? ?????????? ????????? ? ?????????? Entra tenants. ??? ??????????? ??? ??? ????? ????? ? VM ? ?????? ?????????/????????.
• Box 2: Azure Monitor Agent ? ?????????????? Data Collection Rules (DCR) — AMA ???????? ??????? Windows (????????, Security Logs) ? DCR ??????????, ????? ??????? ???????? ? ???? ?????????? (? ?????? Log Analytics workspace).

• Failed login attempts
• The account being targeted
• The source user or system
• Time and frequency of attempts

• Two-factor authentication: Helps prevent unauthorized access, but does not primarily detect the employee’s attempts.
• Firewall: Controls network traffic; it generally does not monitor individual login attempts.
• Intrusion prevention system (IPS): Can detect certain network attacks, but this scenario is best addressed through authentication and audit logging.

• Short answer: The correct term is Anti-forensics (option D), not “Felony.”

• Why: The actions described—hiding files in slack space, changing file headers, placing suspicious files in executables, and altering metadata—are classic anti-forensics techniques. They’re used to hinder or obscure forensic analysis, not to label the act as a legal category.

• About the options:

• Note: The provided answer key lists B (Felony), which is misleading for this exam objective. The exam typically tests knowledge of forensics concepts, where anti-forensics is the correct category.

• A) You can only apply a single template BOM to a service object.

• C) You can modify or delete lines in a BOM template regardless of whether the template has been associated to a service object, or not.

• B) You can apply many template BOMs to a service object — false; typically only one template per service object.
• D) You can modify/delete lines only if not associated — false; you can modify templates even after association (per C).

• The two correct options are:

• The two incorrect options:

• Alice is co-resident on the same physical host and exploits shared hardware (the processor cache) to infer secrets. This is the classic definition of a side-channel attack—information leakage through implementation details (like timing or cache behavior) rather than by breaking a protocol or injecting code.

• Observing cache timing or access patterns to deduce cryptographic keys or plaintext data from the victim VM.

• Man-in-the-cloud attack: targets cloud trust/auth, not local hardware sharing.
• SQL injection: exploits input to run SQL commands, not a VM/caching vector.
• Service hijacking: takes control of a service, not about covert data leakage via shared hardware.

• Notice phrases like “shared hardware resources,” “co-resident,” or “cache”—these indicate a side-channel vector.

• Basic support does not include architectural/design assessments.
• Premier support includes advisory services such as architectural reviews/design assessments.

• The solution (subscribe to Premier support) does meet the goal. The correct choice should be Yes (A).
• The provided answer key showing B (No) is likely incorrect for current Azure support plans.

• Wiping securely overwrites the drive so the original data cannot reasonably be recovered. It is generally less expensive than physically destroying the device.
• Recycling could expose the data if the drive is not securely erased first.
• Shredding physically destroys the drive and is effective, but usually more costly and prevents reuse.
• Deletion only removes file references; it is not a secure sanitization method.

• Each statement is evaluated as True (Yes) or False (No) independently.
• Key Azure facts to recall:

• Version control provides a single source of truth for metadata changes and tracks every modification.
• It supports branching and merging, so each feature can be developed in isolation and later merged without overwriting others.
• It allows diffs and conflict resolution, making it easier to manage dependencies across features and ensure a stable release.

• Setup Audit Trail: only logs who/change when something happened; it doesn’t prevent overwriting or manage cross-feature dependencies.
• Change Sets: used to deploy changes between orgs, not to coordinate parallel development or prevent conflicts across ongoing sprints.

• What the goal is: You want to add guest (external) users to your Azure AD tenant contoso.com, one entry per external user in a CSV.

• The proposed solution uses New-AzureADUser for each external user. Why this isn’t correct: New-AzureADUser creates a regular (internal) user in your directory. It does not create a guest/B2B user invite. So you’d end up with 500 ordinary accounts, not guest accounts with external access.

• The correct approach: Use New-AzureADMSInvitation for each external user. This invites the external user to your directory and creates a guest user (a B2B collaboration user) in your tenant. The invited user then accepts the invitation and gains access as a guest.

• Azure AD vs directory/tenant: Azure AD is the cloud identity service. A directory (also called a tenant) is your specific instance of that service (contoso.com in your scenario). The terms are often used interchangeably in exams.
• Guest user vs internal user: A guest user is external to your organization; an internal user is created directly in your directory as a normal employee/user account.
• B2B invitation: The process of inviting external users so they can collaborate in your resources; New-AzureADMSInvitation is designed for this.

1. Create a new AMI or copy the existing AMI while specifying EBS encryption and an appropriate AWS KMS key.
2. This creates an encrypted AMI backed by encrypted EBS snapshots.
3. Copy the encrypted AMI to the destination Region, using a KMS key available there.
4. Launch the application stack from the encrypted AMI.

• B: AWS KMS does not encrypt an existing unencrypted AMI in place. You must create an encrypted copy.
• C: AWS Certificate Manager manages TLS certificates, not EBS or AMI encryption.
• D: Enabling encryption by default affects newly created EBS volumes and snapshots; it does not encrypt an existing unencrypted AMI during copying.

• Answer: Record Producer (option D)

• Why: In ServiceNow HR Service Delivery, to make an HR Service usable from the Employee Service Center (self-service portal), there must be a way for employees to submit the request. A Record Producer provides the employee-facing form that creates the underlying HR Case when submitted. Without a linked Record Producer, the HR Service wouldn’t offer a submit form in the Employee Center.

• What the other fields are generally for (not required for exposure):

• Quick check: Look at the HR Service definition and ensure a Record Producer is associated so employees can submit requests from the Employee Center.

• Correct answer: C — The model is deployed at UK border checkpoints.

• The EU AI Act applies to AI systems used within the EU or by entities established in the EU. So:

• AWS IoT Greengrass supports local ML inference using models trained in Amazon SageMaker.
• The model and inference code run on the factory’s local server, so processing continues even when internet connectivity is unavailable.
• A Greengrass component can:

• This provides low latency and avoids sending images to AWS for every inference.

• A: Uses AWS-hosted services and therefore depends on internet connectivity. It would fail during an outage.
• C: Snowball Edge is unnecessary for this use case and adds deployment complexity. A local Greengrass server is the intended edge-inference solution.
• D: Amazon Monitron is designed for monitoring industrial equipment health, not analyzing camera images with a custom SageMaker model.

• The Scrum Guide specifies four required events: Sprint Planning, Daily Scrum, Sprint Review, and Sprint Retrospective. These events enable transparency, inspection, and adaptation.
• The other items listed are not mandatory under Scrum:

Why B works

• AWS KMS keys are Regional resources. A normal customer managed key in Region A cannot be used directly in Region B.
• A customer managed multi-Region KMS key (MRK) has related key replicas in both Regions. The replicas share key material and key ID, although each has a Regional ARN.
• With client-side encryption, the application encrypts the data before storing it in S3. Cross-Region replication then copies already-encrypted objects, so S3 does not need to decrypt and re-encrypt them with a different Regional key.

Why the other choices are weaker

• A and C: SSE-S3 uses Amazon-managed S3 keys, not the required customer managed KMS key.
• D: SSE-KMS can work only if the solution creates and configures the appropriate KMS key or multi-Region key replica in each Region. As written, it says to create a customer managed KMS key in each Region, which implies separate keys—not the same KMS key. Replication also requires additional KMS permissions and destination encryption configuration.

• Amazon DynamoDB — Managed NoSQL database, not PostgreSQL.
• Amazon Athena — Serverless service for querying data in S3; intended for analytics, not OLTP.
• Amazon EMR — Managed cluster platform for big-data frameworks such as Hadoop and Spark.

• In Microsoft Teams Phone System, a single Auto Attendant can handle multiple time-based greetings by using separate schedules for office hours, after hours, weekends, and holidays.
• You can configure one Auto Attendant with four distinct greetings mapped to:

• Open the Teams admin center > Voice > Auto attendants, edit or create an Auto Attendant.
• Under Time-based routing, define four rules:

• Create a Holiday schedule with the relevant dates (e.g., Easter, Christmas) and assign the Holiday greeting.
• Save the configuration.

• If your environment cannot separate weekend from after-hours within a single Auto Attendant, you might technically need more than one Auto Attendant.

• Developed and maintained independently
• Deployed without changing the entire application
• Scaled separately based on demand
• More resilient when another service has problems

• A: Functional testing is useful, but it is not the main practice described.
• B: Automation helps deployment, but the scenario focuses on architectural decomposition.
• C: Multiple locations improve availability, not application modularity.

• Strongest encryption algorithms: Choose the strongest available encryption and integrity options, typically AES with the largest key size and a secure integrity algorithm.
• Encrypt all traffic: Select tunnel mode rather than transport mode. Tunnel mode encrypts the entire original IP packet, which is appropriate for a site-to-site VPN between branch networks.
• Secret-password authentication: Configure a pre-shared key (PSK) on both VPN concentrators. The key must match at both ends.

• A. Configure prompt modifications to enforce tone, disclaimers, and refusal behavior at the system level.

• D. Configure Power Platform DLP policies to restrict unauthorized data connectors.

• B: Manual topic-by-topic disclaimer edits are specifically discouraged.
• C: Channel settings do not replace agent-level Responsible AI controls.
• E: Publishing before enabling safety filters violates the stated deployment sequence. Responsible AI filters should be enabled before publication, not afterward.