Splunk SPLK-2003 Exam Prep
Splunk SOAR Certified Automation Developer (Page 8 )

• Where to find the TiMOS runtime image
• Which configuration file to load
• The IP address and related settings for the CPM management Ethernet port

• A: User authorization is configured in the router’s security configuration, not primarily in the BOF.
• C: Hardware initialization is performed by the boot process and system software.
• D: The system date and time are configured separately, often through NTP or CLI settings.

• NAT traversal: Helps WAN Edge, vSmart, and vManage devices discover how to reach one another through NAT.
• Initial orchestration: Authenticates and introduces devices when they first join the SD-WAN fabric.
• Connection brokering: Provides information that allows devices to form their required control connections, after which the vBond is generally not in the data path.

• WAN Edge: Forwards user traffic and forms secure tunnels.
• vSmart: Controls the overlay control plane and distributes routes and policies.
• vManage: Provides centralized management, configuration, and monitoring.

• If the hashes match, the software has likely not changed.
• If they differ, the software was modified or corrupted.

• Encryption: Protects confidentiality by making data unreadable; it does not primarily verify that software was unchanged.
• Baselines: Establish expected configurations or states, but hashing is the specific method for checking file integrity.
• Tokenization: Replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive tokens and is unrelated to software integrity.

• User2 is in Group1, so CA2 applies.
• CA2 targets Office 365.
• CA2 requires MFA OR an app protection policy.
• User2 has no app protection policy, but if User2 successfully completes MFA, the OR condition is satisfied.
• The device being noncompliant does not matter because CA2 does not require device compliance.
• CA1 applies only to Global Administrators. Unless User2 is also a Global Administrator, CA1 does not apply.

• Accept: Acknowledging the risk without taking additional action.
• Transfer: Moving the risk’s financial impact to a third party, such as an insurer.
• Mitigate: Reducing the likelihood or impact through controls, such as patching or employee training.
• Avoid: Eliminating the activity that creates the risk.

• The vulnerability scan identifies a vulnerability.
• The administrator verifies that the vulnerability is not present.
• Therefore, the scan produced a false positive.

• True positive: A vulnerability is reported and genuinely exists.
• False negative: A vulnerability exists, but the scan fails to detect it.
• True negative: No vulnerability exists, and the scan correctly reports no issue.

Why this is correct

• Each user authenticates with their own Google account.
• Google manages the user’s SSH key association.
• IAM controls who can access instances.
• Access can be audited by user identity, so security can determine who accessed a VM.
• Granting the role to a Google group avoids managing permissions individually.

Why the others don’t apply

• A: A shared private key is difficult to distribute securely and cannot reliably identify which employee used it.
• B: Manually collecting and deploying keys on every instance is operationally inefficient and complicates auditing.
• D: A project-wide shared key has the same identity and key-management problems as option A. It also does not provide per-user accountability.

• Partners first log in to the corporate portal, which uses the shared SAML Identity Provider.
• When they select a Salesforce link, the IdP can send a SAML assertion directly to Salesforce.
• Salesforce validates the assertion and grants access to the Partner Community without requiring another login. This is IdP-initiated SSO because authentication begins outside Salesforce.

• SP-initiated SSO starts when Salesforce sends an authentication request to the IdP. That would be appropriate if users began by visiting Salesforce.
• The Web Server and User Agent OAuth flows are for OAuth authorization, not browser-based SAML federation between an IdP and Salesforce.

• B — The most significant risks are held by SQ.

• C — SQ should recognise the cars as inventory.

• F — SQ recognises revenue when LM sells a car to a third party.

• A: LM does not hold the most significant risks.
• D: LM does not recognise the cars as inventory.
• E: SQ should not recognise revenue when cars are merely delivered to LM.

• A. IDS attack signatures: An IDS primarily detects suspicious network activity; it is not the best control for scanning uploaded documents for malware.
• C. Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers and improves availability, but does not inspect files for malware.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications against attacks such as SQL injection and command injection. It may help secure the upload function, but malware scanning is the key requirement here.

• Treatment one – easier to prepare: Convenience for the accounting team is not the main objective of financial reporting.
• Treatment two – fair representation: This is the correct choice because financial statements must faithfully represent the underlying transaction and its economic substance.
• Treatment three – maximises profit: Accounting policies must not be selected simply to manipulate or inflate reported profit.
• Treatment four – easier to understand: Understandability is important, but it cannot justify presenting information that is less faithfully represented.

• Input validation: Prevents malicious or malformed input within an application; it does not authenticate a software package.
• Secure cookies: Protect web-session cookies; they do not protect downloadable software.
• Fuzzing: Tests software by supplying unexpected input to find vulnerabilities; it does not verify software integrity.

• Each directory is a separate identity boundary.
• Managing multiple directories increases administrative overhead.
• Users and administrators may need separate identities or additional configuration across tenants.
• Resources in a subscription are associated with one Microsoft Entra tenant.

• Management groups for governance across subscriptions
• Separate subscriptions for divisions when appropriate
• Resource groups to organize resources
• Azure role-based access control (RBAC) to give each division’s administrator access only to their own resources

• If the attachment is safe, it is released to the user.
• If malware is detected, the attachment is blocked or removed according to the policy.
• This reduces delivery delays without disabling malware scanning.

• Replace removes the original attachment and replaces it with a text file explaining that it was blocked. It does not primarily optimize delivery time.
• Block and Enable redirect blocks messages with suspicious attachments and can redirect them for review; it does not provide the required faster delivery experience.
• Monitor and Enable redirect is for observation and does not reliably block malicious attachments.

• FTP — Transfers files using a client/server model and supports authentication. It uses separate control and data connections.
• TFTP — A very simple file-transfer protocol with no authentication and minimal features. Commonly used to transfer router or switch configuration files and IOS images.
• SCP — Securely copies files over SSH. It provides encryption and authentication.
• SFTP — Also transfers files securely through SSH, but provides more file-management capabilities than traditional SCP.
• HTTP/HTTPS — Primarily web protocols, but can also download files; HTTPS encrypts the session.

• TFTP = simple, unauthenticated file transfer
• FTP = file transfer with authentication, but not inherently encrypted
• SCP/SFTP = secure file transfer using SSH

• A hypervisor allows multiple virtual machines to run on one physical server.
• Each VM can have its own operating system, so the customer can consolidate Windows, Linux, and Unix servers.
• A Type 2 hypervisor runs on a host operating system and can be deployed on local hardware, helping address data privacy and avoiding ongoing public-cloud charges.

• Containers share the host operating system’s kernel.
• They are well suited to consolidating applications, but they generally cannot independently run a mix of unrelated kernels such as Windows, Linux, and Unix on one host.

• A: Describes an update-set conflict, not a Dictionary Override.
• B: Describes a configuration item or change concept.
• C: Describes an approval or workflow activity.

• Scale out during the hours when customer traffic is high.
• Scale in during low-demand periods, reducing instance-hours and cost.
• Use scaling policies based on metrics such as CPU utilization or request count.

• Multiple Availability Zones: Improves availability and fault tolerance, but does not automatically reduce cost.
• Placement group: Helps with specialized performance or low-latency requirements, not cost optimization.
• Private subnets: Improve network security, but do not automatically adjust capacity or reduce EC2 usage costs.

• Proxy server: Acts as an intermediary for requests, but does not necessarily provide an encrypted connection to the corporate network.
• NGFW: A firewall with advanced inspection and filtering capabilities; it may support VPNs but is not the remote-access solution itself.
• Security zone: A logical network grouping based on trust or security requirements, not a method for remote access.

• Suspended an operator who correctly refused to use unsafe equipment.
• Rewarded another operator for using the equipment despite the broken safety guard.

• A — Management is not particularly concerned with managing risks.

• B — Employees will perceive that management does not care about health and safety risks.

• C — This factory’s safety record is likely to be poor.

• Azure DevOps Analytics views are accessed through the Power BI Azure DevOps (Boards only) connector.
• This connector authenticates directly to Azure DevOps Services and lets you select an Analytics view.
• Analytics views allow filtering and shaping data in the cloud before Power BI loads it.
• Azure DevOps Server (Boards only) is for an on-premises Azure DevOps Server instance, not Azure DevOps cloud.
• A generic OData Feed connection can access OData endpoints, but it is not the purpose-built connector for Azure DevOps Analytics views.
• “OData queries” describes the underlying technology or query approach, not the most appropriate Azure DevOps connector choice here.

• Honeypots: Deliberately vulnerable or attractive systems designed to lure attackers. Legitimate users should not access them, so activity on a honeypot is a strong indicator of compromise.
• DNS sinkholes: Redirect requests for known malicious domains to a controlled internal system instead of allowing the connection. This can identify infected hosts attempting to contact command-and-control infrastructure.

• Tokenization: Replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive tokens; it protects data but does not primarily detect attackers.
• CI/CD: Automates software development and deployment processes.
• Threat modeling: Identifies potential threats and weaknesses before or during system design.
• Data obfuscation: Makes data harder to understand, but it is not an attacker-detection method.

• AB’s own PPE: $100m
• CD’s PPE in its individual accounts: $50m
• Fair value uplift at acquisition: $40m
• Remaining useful life: 10 years
• Extra depreciation each year: $40m ÷ 10 = $4m
• Four years’ extra depreciation to 31 December 20X4: 4 × $4m = $16m
• Remaining fair value uplift: $40m - $16m = $24m

• B — The glass core component is encased in a cladding.

• D — Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber.

• BNC connectors are associated mainly with coaxial copper cabling, not standard fiber connections.
• Data does not pass through the cladding; the cladding helps reflect and contain the light.
• RJ-45 connectors are used with copper Ethernet cabling, not fiber-optic interfaces.

• Accept: Acknowledges the risk without taking additional action.
• Transfer: Shifts the risk or financial impact to another party, such as an insurer.
• Mitigate: Reduces the likelihood or impact through controls like patching, MFA, or segmentation.
• Avoid: Eliminates the activity that creates the risk.

• A — Securing information assets: This is the responsibility of management and operational/security teams.
• B — Validating protection: Correct. The auditor checks whether controls—such as access restrictions, encryption, retention, and handling procedures—match the asset’s classification.
• C — Ensuring alignment with regulations: Management and legal/compliance functions typically establish classification requirements; the auditor may assess compliance but does not primarily define alignment.
• D — Defining classification levels: This is a management responsibility based on business needs, risk, and regulatory obligations.

• Third-party attestation: Provides independent validation, but is typically periodic and performed by an external party.
• Penetration testing: Simulates attacks to identify exploitable vulnerabilities; it does not primarily track compliance.
• Vulnerability scans: Identify technical weaknesses, but do not provide a detailed review of procedures or compliance activities.

Statement 1 — Correct

Statement 2 — Correct

• Matching hashes: The software likely has not changed.
• Different hashes: The software was modified or corrupted.

• Encryption: Protects confidentiality by making data unreadable; it does not primarily detect changes.
• Baselines: Define an approved system or configuration state, but they are not the specific integrity mechanism here.
• Tokenization: Replaces sensitive data with substitute values.

• Correct exam answer: A — HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
• The relevant location is associated with HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SAM.
• The SAM does not store passwords in plain text; it stores password hashes.

• HKEY_CURRENT_USER contains settings for the currently logged-in user, not the account-password database.
• HKEY_USERS contains user profiles and settings loaded for users.
• HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIGURATION contains hardware/profile configuration information.

• Endpoint Manager: manages hosts and sensor-related settings.
• Falcon Investigator: supports investigation and analysis, but does not necessarily grant RTR access.
• Remediation Manager: handles remediation-related actions rather than interactive host access.

• Virtual introductions: Team members share their role, experience, location, and working preferences.
• Online icebreakers: Short, informal activities such as “two truths and a lie.”
• Virtual coffee chats: Pair team members for informal, non-project conversations.
• Collaborative problem-solving: The team works together on an online puzzle or scenario.
• Retrospectives: The team discusses what went well, what did not, and how to improve.
• Working-agreement sessions: The team agrees on response times, meeting etiquette, communication channels, and handoffs.
• Recognition sessions: Members acknowledge one another’s contributions.
• Remote workshops: Teams jointly create plans, diagrams, or schedules using collaboration tools.

• Active remediation actions role in Microsoft Defender for Endpoint

• Security Reader role in Azure AD/Entra ID

• Security Administrator is broader than necessary because it grants extensive security-management permissions, violating least privilege.
• Compliance Data Administrator is intended for compliance data management, not Defender for Endpoint remediation approvals.

• CSIRT: A team that responds to and manages security incidents.
• CVSS: A scoring system for rating the severity of vulnerabilities.
• SOAR: A technology platform for automating and coordinating security operations and incident response.

• MFA: Protects sign-in and authentication.
• Azure Key Vault: Protects deployment secrets and credentials.
• Answer: No (B).

• One network address
• Two usable host addresses—one for each router
• One broadcast address

• Router A: 10.2.1.1
• Router B: 10.2.1.2

• CHAP: Uses a challenge-response exchange, so the password is not directly transmitted.
• IPsec: Provides authentication, integrity, and encryption for IP communications.
• EAP: An authentication framework that supports stronger methods, such as certificates or token-based authentication.

• Lower order numbers appear first.
• For example, a variable with order 100 appears before one with order 200.
• The Sequence field is not the control used for catalog variable display order.
• The Default Value sets a value, not placement.
• The Choice field defines selectable options, not the variable’s position.

• Training data for potential bias before model training
• Trained models for bias in predictions
• Model features to help explain how they influence predictions

• A: RAG workflows are typically built using services such as Amazon Bedrock, knowledge bases, and data sources.
• B: Monitoring model quality in production is primarily associated with SageMaker Model Monitor.
• C: Documenting model details is handled by capabilities such as SageMaker Model Cards.

1. Search & Intelligence in the Microsoft 365 admin center — No

1. Audit in the Microsoft Defender portal — Yes

1. Audit in the Microsoft Purview portal — Yes

• Root path cost
• Port priority
• Port ID

text 
interface GigabitEthernet0/1 
 spanning-tree vlan 10 port-priority 64

• Interface number: Helps form the port ID but is not normally configured as the preference value.
• VLAN priority: Not used to select a preferred forwarding interface.
• Hello time: Controls how often BPDUs are sent; it does not select a preferred port.

• A. IDS attack signatures: An IDS primarily detects suspicious network activity; it is not the best tool for scanning uploaded files.
• C. Load balancer: Improves availability and distributes traffic but does not inspect files for malware.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications against attacks such as SQL injection and command injection. It may inspect HTTP requests, but malware scanning of uploaded PDFs is the key requirement here.

apex 
for (Account updatedAccount : Trigger.new) { 
    AccountTriggerHelper.notinyxternalSystem(updatedAccount.Id); 
}

• Too many callouts: The callout occurs asynchronously in the future method, and each future transaction can perform its permitted callouts.
• Too many SOQL queries: The SOQL query is inside the future execution, not repeatedly in the trigger transaction.
• Callout from triggers not supported: Direct callouts from triggers are prohibited, but the trigger delegates the callout to asynchronous Apex, which is the correct pattern.

sql 
ALTER TABLE dbo.DimCustomer 
ADD CONSTRAINT PK_DimCustomer 
PRIMARY KEY NONCLUSTERED (CustomerKey) 
NOT ENFORCED;

1. ALTER TABLE dbo.DimCustomer
2. ADD CONSTRAINT PK_DimCustomer PRIMARY KEY NONCLUSTERED (CustomerKey)
3. NOT ENFORCED

• Employees can work from any location, including remote sites and offices worldwide.
• Login can be relatively seamless after the device is registered.
• It does not require distributing additional physical authentication equipment.

• Geotagging: Identifies location, but location alone is not a strong authentication method and may prevent legitimate remote access.
• Smart cards: Provide strong authentication but require card readers and physical cards, increasing equipment and management requirements.
• Time-based logins: Typically involve one-time codes that users must enter, making the experience less seamless and potentially requiring a token or authenticator app.

• STIX: A standardized format for exchanging cyber-threat intelligence.
• OVAL: A language and framework for describing and assessing system vulnerabilities and configuration issues.
• Threat intelligence feed: Provides current indicators or threat information, but is not specifically a reference for common application exploitation techniques.
• CVE: A catalog of publicly disclosed vulnerabilities, identified by unique CVE numbers.

• Standardize which services users can deploy
• Apply governance and access controls
• Manage approved product versions
• Give users self-service access to authorized resources

• AWS Control Tower: Sets up and governs a multi-account AWS environment.
• AWS Cloud Map: Provides service discovery for applications.
• AWS Clean Rooms: Enables privacy-preserving collaboration on data analysis.

• Liability accounts (2000–2999) would incorrectly require dimensions, although they should have none.
• Expense accounts (6000–6998) would incorrectly require Customer, which should be optional.
• Account 6999 needs a separate rule because it requires all four dimensions, including Customer.

• 2000–2999: no dimensions
• 4000–4999: Department and Division required; Project and Customer optional
• 6000–6998: Department, Division, and Project required; Customer optional
• 6999: Department, Division, Project, and Customer required

• Future costs — Only costs occurring in the future can be affected by the investment decision. Past costs are sunk and irrelevant.
• Incremental costs — These are additional costs caused by choosing the investment. They are relevant because they differ between alternatives.
• Cash flows — Capital investment decisions are based on future cash inflows and outflows, usually discounted to present value.

• Committed costs have already been agreed or incurred and generally cannot be changed by the decision.
• Unavoidable costs will arise regardless of which option is selected, so they do not affect the choice.

• Portfolio definition cycle — establishes and maintains the portfolio strategy, objectives, and management framework.
• Portfolio delivery cycle — coordinates and monitors the delivery of change initiatives, ensuring the portfolio remains aligned with strategic objectives and delivers value.

• Practice — a structured area of portfolio management activity, such as risk management or resource management.
• Technique — a method used to perform an activity; it is not the term for portfolio delivery itself.
• Principle — a guiding rule for effective portfolio management.