Free STEP2 Exam Braindumps (page: 39)

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A 35-year-old primigravid woman with a history of cyclic menses at 28- to 30-day intervals began her last menses on August 18. A home pregnancy test was positive on September 20. At her first prenatal visit, she asks you what the duration of pregnancy is and what her due date is. You tell her that the average number of days from the onset of menses to delivery is which of the following?

  1. 250
  2. 260
  3. 270
  4. 280
  5. 290

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The mean duration of human pregnancy is 266 days from conception. To this is added 14 days for the interval between the onset of the last menses and the conception date. Thus, it is important to ascertain the range of days for each woman's menstrual cycles. The more variable a woman's menstrual cycles are, the less certain is the estimated due date calculated from the LMP. The standard deviation of pregnancy duration is ±17 days. Thus, 95% of human pregnancies will deliver between 263 and 297 days after the onset of the LMP.



A 44-year-old woman had a normal Pap smear 3 years ago. Her menstrual periods occur monthly and last 5 days. She has had intermenstrual and postcoital spotting intermittently for the past 6 months. The pelvic examination is normal.
Which of the following is the most appropriate test to perform?

  1. an endometrial biopsy
  2. an endocervical curettage
  3. a conization of the cervix
  4. a Pap smear
  5. a hysteroscopy

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Postcoital spotting and intermenstrual spotting in a woman with cyclic menses is suggestive of a cervical abnormality, rather than an endometrial hormonal abnormality. In the absence of a visible lesion, a Pap smear that includes cells from both the ectocervix and endocervix is the preferred method of evaluation, especially when the woman has no history of cervical pathology or a normal Pap smear in the recent past.
Endometrial biopsy and hysteroscopy assess the endometrium, not the cervix. A conization of the cervix should be reserved for women with documented cervical neoplasia when determination of the extent ofthe lesion is necessary. An endocervical curettage is usually reserved for women with unsatisfactory Pap smears and persistent abnormal bleeding.



A 44-year-old woman had a normal Pap smear 3 years ago. Her menstrual periods occur monthly and last 5 days. She has had intermenstrual and postcoital spotting intermittently for the past 6 months. The pelvic examination is normal. All tests performed on the woman were normal. She returns 1 year later for her annual gynecologic examination. On speculum examination, she has a visible 7-mm lesion on her cervix that bleeds on contact. Which of the following is the most appropriate procedure to perform?

  1. colposcopy
  2. cervical biopsy
  3. Pap smear
  4. conization of the cervix
  5. vaginal hysterectomy

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Pap smear and colposcopy are screening tests appropriate when there is no visible cervical pathology. In the presence of a lesion, pathologic evaluation is necessary to make a diagnosis. An office cervical biopsy is the procedure of choice to establish the diagnosis. If the diagnosis from the biopsy is cancer, a conization of the cervix is indicated to determine the extent of the disease surface spread as well as depth of stromal invasion. As a general principle, cytology is a screening tool, not a diagnostic test, and any visible lesion (vulvar, vaginal, or cervical) should be biopsied for a definitive diagnosis



A 24-year-old woman lost her previous two pregnancies at approximately 20 weeks' gestation, without having noted any contractions. She is currently at 15 weeks' gestation and denies having uterine contractions. Her cervix is undilated and uneffaced. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

  1. bed rest
  2. terbutaline
  3. hydroxyprogesterone
  4. DES
  5. a cervical cerclage

Answer(s): E

Explanation:

The patient described in the question has a classic history of an incompetent cervix: expulsion of a fetus without labor. It is believed to be caused by previous cervical trauma, DES exposure, or, most commonly, a congenital defect in cervical stroma. In the absence of preterm labor, there is no indication for terbutaline or other tocolytic agents. DES is contraindicated in pregnancy, but was used in the past to treat repeated pregnancy loss. Hydroxyprogesterone is a progestational compound that is being used by some hospitals for patients in premature labor, but its use is controversial. Bed rest is occasionally encouraged by some practitioners for patients with a history of premature deliveries. The probability of a successful pregnancy after a cervical cerclage increases from 20% to approximately 80%. It is crucial to eliminate the possibility of preterm labor before placing a cerclage.



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Alken commented on January 04, 2025
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Allen commented on January 04, 2025
Nice approach
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