Free STEP2 Exam Braindumps (page: 47)

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A healthy 27-year-old male and his partner have been attempting to conceive for more than 1 year. As part of their evaluation he has a semen analysis. His ejaculate volume is 3.5 mL, sperm concentration is 8 million/mL, sperm motility is 65%, oval forms comprise 60% of the sperm, and fructose is present in the ejaculate.
The man is treated with clomiphene for a presumptive diagnosis of male factor infertility. Though clomiphene is an unproven and unapproved therapy for male infertility, what is the earliest that a semen analysis should be done to detect an improvement in his semen parameters?

  1. 33 days
  2. 53 days
  3. 73 days
  4. 90 days
  5. 120 days

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The cycle of spermatogenesis is 73 ± 5 days.
This is the time required for maturation of spermatogonia to spermatozoa. The cycle is at different stages along the seminiferous tubules, necessary to ensure the presence of sperm in each ejaculate. Further, spermatozoa require approximately 3 weeks to traverse the ductal system and appear in the ejaculate.
Knowing this has important implications: any therapy intended to stimulate spermatogenesis must be continued for at least the duration of one spermatogenic cycle to determine whether there is a beneficial effect. While impaired spermatogenesis may occur late in the cycle of spermatogenesis and improvement with clomiphene may occur sooner, the semen analysis should still be delayed for 90 days to provide better evidence for the presence or absence of improvement in the semen analysis.
Results must be interpreted with caution because there
is great biological variability in semen parameters: what is interpreted as a therapeutic effect may only be natural biological variation. Ultimately, pregnancy is the only meaningful measure of treatment success and pregnancy may have occurred despite the therapy, not because of it.



A 39-year-old pregnant woman with chronic hypertension and one prior pregnancy is now at 38 weeks' gestation. She comes to labor and delivery with profuse vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain of sudden onset.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. bloody show
  2. vaginal laceration from coitus
  3. cervicitis
  4. placenta previa
  5. placental abruption

Answer(s): E

Explanation:

Painful vaginal bleeding is most likely the result of placental abruption, premature separation of the placenta. Bloody show is a normal sign of impending or early labor. The bleeding is scant and intermingled with clear mucus. Bleeding from a vaginal laceration following coitus is not associated with abdominal pain.
A history of coitus followed immediately by bleeding suggests this diagnosis. Bleeding from cervicitis is most often spotting and not associated with abdominal pain. Classically, bleeding with a placenta previa is painless.



A 39-year-old pregnant woman with chronic hypertension and one prior pregnancy is now at 38 weeks' gestation. She comes to labor and delivery with profuse vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain of sudden onset.
If the patient has a placental abruption, which of the following is the most likely risk factor

  1. advanced maternal age
  2. low parity
  3. coitus immediately before the onset of bleeding
  4. hypertension
  5. a step aerobic class immediately before the onset of bleeding

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Maternal hypertension is the most common risk factor for a placental abruption. The relative risk is 3.8 for parous women and 1.6 for nulliparous women. In one published report, half of the women with an abruption severe enough to kill the fetus had hypertension, and half of these had evidence of chronic vascular disease. Advanced maternal age without confounding factors such as diabetes or hypertension is not a risk factor for placental abruption. High parity is associated with an increased risk of placental abruption.
Vigorous coitus can cause a vaginal laceration, but not abdominal pain. While blunt abdominal trauma may cause a placental abruption, routine forms of exercise are not a risk factor for placental abruption.



A 39-year-old pregnant woman with chronic hypertension and one prior pregnancy is now at 38 weeks' gestation. She comes to labor and delivery with profuse vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain of sudden onset.

This patient has an external fetal monitor placed. Uterine tone seems to be increased, and there are occasional variable decelerations of the fetal heart to 90 BPM. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

  1. tocolysis with a -receptor agonist
  2. Pitocin induction of labor
  3. continued monitoring of mother and baby
  4. amniotomy
  5. cesarean section

Answer(s): E

Explanation:

At term, a placental abruption severe enough to cause fetal distress warrants immediate delivery. If the pregnancy is remote from term, temporizing measures may be considered, such as observation. However, delivery should be achieved if the mother becomes hemodynamically unstable. Tocolysis is ineffective in relaxing the uterus and has the added disadvantage of causing vasodilation of an already under-filled vascular system. Amniotomy and Pitocin induction will not cause delivery rapidly enough to prevent further deterioration of the fetus. Evidence of fetal distress makes continued monitoring unacceptable.



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Alken commented on January 04, 2025
No comments yet Still watching the pattern of exam
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Allen commented on January 04, 2025
Nice approach
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