Free STEP2 Exam Braindumps (page: 48)

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A pediatrician asks you to see a 13-year-old girl who has not begun to menstruate and has a 6-month history of pelvic and lower abdominal pain at approximately 1-month interval. She has Tanner stage 3 pubic hair and breast development. Her growth spurt occurred about 1 year ago and her current height is 65 in. (165 cm). She has never had sexual intercourse. On examination of her external genitalia the presence of Tanner stage 3 pubic hair is confirmed. The labia are normal. There is no obvious vaginal opening and there is bulging between the labia minora.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. androgen insensitivity syndrome
  2. mittelschmerz (ovulation pain)
  3. Müllerian and vaginal agenesis
  4. gonadal dysgenesis
  5. imperforate hymen

Answer(s): E

Explanation:

The presence of pubertal events except external menstruation and the bulging of the hymen causing retrograde menstruation as a cause of her cyclic pain establish the diagnosis of imperforate hymen.
Strictly, these women have cryptomenorrhea, not amenorrhea. Women with mittelschmerz (ovulation pain) menstruate cyclically. While pubertal events except menstruation occur normally in women with Müllerian/ vaginal agenesis, cyclic pain is absent because the uterus is hypoplastic or absent and there is no endometrium to shed. Women with gonadal dysgenesis do not develop breasts or pubic hair and have primary amenorrhea. The most common form of gonadal dysgenesis is 45,X Turner syndrome and affected females are less than 62 in. tall.



A pediatrician asks you to see a 13-year-old girl who has not begun to menstruate and has a 6-month history of pelvic and lower abdominal pain at approximately 1-month interval. She has Tanner stage 3 pubic hair and breast development. Her growth spurt occurred about 1 year ago and her current height is 65 in. (165 cm). She has never had sexual intercourse. On examination of her external genitalia the presence of Tanner stage 3 pubic hair is confirmed. The labia are normal. There is no obvious vaginal opening and there is bulging between the labia minora.

Which one of the following laboratory tests is increased in women with gonadal dysgenesis?

  1. serum FSH concentrations
  2. serum TSH concentrations
  3. serum prolactin concentrations
  4. serum estradiol concentrations
  5. serum testosterone concentrations

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Women with gonadal dysgenesis have fibrous streaks instead of functioning gonads. As a result secretion of estradiol and testosterone is decreased. Serum FSH concentrations are increased because of the lack of negative feedback to the hypothalamus and pituitary as a result of diminished sex steroid secretion by the streak gonads. Other pituitary hormones, such as TSH and prolactin are not regulated by sex steroids and their concentrations are normal.



A45-year-old woman has bilateral breast pain that is most severe premenstrually. On palpation, there is excessive nodularity, tenderness, and cystic areas that diminish in size after menses. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. fibrocystic disease
  2. fibroadenomas
  3. intraductal papilloma
  4. breast cancer
  5. engorgement attributable to increased prolactin

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The classic symptom of fibrocystic breast disease is cyclic bilateral breast pain. The pain and associated diffuse breast engorgement is most severe premenstrually. Cystic changes palpated premenstrually typically are smaller postmenstrually. Fibroadenomas are firm, rubbery, freely mobile, solid, and usually solitary masses. Intraductal papilloma does not cause diffuse breast symptoms. Spontaneous and intermittent nipple discharge is the classic sign of an intraductal papilloma. Intraductal carcinoma is more likely if there is a discharge from multiple ducts. Breast cancer should be suspected when a solitary firm nodule does not change throughout the menstrual cycle. A mammogram is helpful, but any suspicious mass should be biopsied. Hyperprolactinemia can cause breast engorgement, but the pain is usually mild, and cystic areas tend not to vary in size



A 35-year-old woman at 30 weeks' gestation discovers a lump in her left breast. Examination reveals a 23 cm, firm nodule in the upper outer quadrant. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

  1. observation until after delivery
  2. thermography
  3. application of hot packs
  4. breast ultrasound
  5. fine-needle aspiration

Answer(s): E

Explanation:

Breast cancer is rare in women younger than 35 years, and the approximate incidence of breast cancer in pregnancy is 1 in 3000 deliveries. Survival rates from breast cancer in pregnancy are less than in nonpregnant women of comparable age. This is due to delayed diagnosis, not a biological effect of pregnancy. Pregnant women, when matched for disease stage, have identical survival rates as nonpregnant women. Despite the pregnancy, the presence of a dominant mass requires histologic evaluation. Temporizing measures (choices A through D) are inappropriate in the presence of a dominant mass. Imaging studies of the breast during pregnancy are difficult to interpret because of the ductular and glandular hypertrophy of pregnancy.



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Alken commented on January 04, 2025
No comments yet Still watching the pattern of exam
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Allen commented on January 04, 2025
Nice approach
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