QUESTION: 81

While visiting a neighbor, a 14-year-old girl is bitten on the left hand by the neighbor's pet cat. The cat is an indoor pet and has had all of the required routine vaccinations. You see the girl in the office approximately 1 hour after the injury. On the dorsum of the left hand you see two shallow puncture wounds that are not actively bleeding. She has full range of motion of her hand, normal capillary refill, and sensation. You see in the chart that the patient had a diphtheria/tetanus (dT) booster vaccine last year. What is the most appropriate management at this time?

Recommend local care at home with hydrogen peroxide and topical antibiotics.
Give a booster dT and start oral cephalexin.
Give an intramuscular (IM) dose of penicillin and emergently refer to a hand surgeon for debridement.
Irrigate the wounds and prescribe oral amoxicillin/clavulanic acid (Augmentin).
Start oral ciprofloxacin and refer to the health department for rabies prophylaxis.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Animal bites, most commonly from pet dogs and cats, result in over 1 million wounds in the United States each year. Bites and scratches from cats are prone to infection with organisms that are normally found in the animal's oropharynx. These infections tend to be polymicrobic and include alpha- hemolytic streptococci, staphylococci, and Pasteurella species, among others. Pasteurella infections tend to spread rapidly, often within hours. Cat bites may also result in the transmission of rabies and tetanus. In the setting of a well cared for indoor house pet, rabies would be unlikely and rabies vaccine unnecessary, although reporting the injury to the health department may be required (depending on local statute). A dT booster would not be necessary, as she had one within a year. Surgical debridement would not be necessary for a shallow wound with normal hand function. If there were signs of tendon, nerve, or vascular injury, then surgical evaluation would be mandatory. Local care alone would not be appropriate because of the propensity for cat bite wounds to become infected. Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for most cat bite wounds, particularly those involving the hands. The recommended first-line agent is a combination of beta- lactam and beta-lactamase inhibitor, such as amoxicillin/ clavulanic acid. An alternative regimen includes clindamycin with either TMP-SMZ (Bactrim DS) or a fluoroquinolone.

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QUESTION: 82

A 29-year-old woman complains of fatigue and decreased exercise tolerance. She takes no medications and denies changes in the color of the stool. Physical examination is significant for pale skin and conjunctivae. Stool was negative for blood. Laboratory evaluation revealed Hgb of 7.8 g/dL, reticulocytopenia, microcytosis, and hypochromia.
The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) recommends screening for iron deficiency in which of the following?

asymptomatic persons over the age of 65 at risk for gastric cancer
immigrants from developing countries
asymptomatic infants at high risk
pregnant women
blood donors

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Iron-deficiency anemia (IDA) is characterized by a low MCV, low ferritin, and a high erythrocyte protoporphyrin in serum. Microcytosis and hypochromia are the hallmark in the peripheral smear. Elevated erythrocyte protoporphyrin in serum can also be seen in anemia of chronic disease and chronic lead poisoning.
The USPSTF recommends screening pregnant women for IDA, but found insufficient evidence to recommend for or against routine screening in other asymptomatic persons. However, the guidelines did recommend routine iron supplementation in asymptomatic infants 612 months of age who are at high risk of IDA. Infants are considered to be at high risk if they are living in poverty; are Black, Native American, or Alaskan Native; are immigrants from a developing country; are preterm or low birth weight; or if their primary dietary intake is unfortified cow's milk. The most common cause of cobalamin deficiency is pernicious anemia. Rarely, hypersecretion of gastric acid (i.e., Zollinger- Ellison syndrome) results in cobalamin deficiency.
The peripheral smears in folate and cobalamin deficiency are indistinguishable, showing macrocytosis and hypersegmented neutrophils. Both methylmalonic acid and homocysteine levels become elevated with cobalamin deficiency. Folate deficiency is caused by decreased intake, increased utilization, or impaired absorption. Because body stores of folate are low, persons who have an inadequate consumption will become anemic in several months. The recommended amount of dietary folate is 400 g/day. Anemia is not a diagnosis in itself; it is an objective sign of the presence of a disease. It is always secondary to an underlying condition. In most cases, a thorough history and physical examination can help elicit the pathogenesis of the anemia and direct appropriate treatment.

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QUESTION: 83

A 29-year-old woman complains of fatigue and decreased exercise tolerance. She takes no medications and denies changes in the color of the stool. Physical examination is significant for pale skin and conjunctivae. Stool was negative for blood. Laboratory evaluation revealed Hgb of 7.8 g/dL, reticulocytopenia, microcytosis, and hypochromia.
In vitamin B12 or folate deficiency, which of the following statements is correct?

High serum levels of homocysteine and decreased levels of methylmalonic acid are reliable indicators of cobalamin deficiency.
The recommended amount of dietary folate is 800 g/day.
The peripheral smear in patients with cobalamin deficiency is identical to that found in folate deficiency.
The most common cause of cobalamin deficiency is hypersecretion of gastric acid (i.e., Zollinger- Ellison syndrome).
Because body folate stores are high, individuals with low consumption of folate will take several years to become anemic.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

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QUESTION: 84

A 29-year-old woman complains of fatigue and decreased exercise tolerance. She takes no medications and denies changes in the color of the stool. Physical examination is significant for pale skin and conjunctivae. Stool was negative for blood. Laboratory evaluation revealed Hgb of 7.8 g/dL, reticulocytopenia, microcytosis, and hypochromia. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of the anemia in this woman?

Start iron therapy as soon as possible.
Transfuse RBCs and start iron therapy.
Start B12 and folate replacement.
Identify the cause of the anemia with a thorough history and physical examination.
Start iron therapy and B12 replacement.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

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