QUESTION: 145

A 55-year-old male is brought to the ED, by ambulance, because of crushing chest pain radiating to his left shoulder and arm that started 1 hour ago. He has a history of hypertension, high cholesterol, and has smoked a pack of cigarettes a day for 30 years. He has never had symptoms like this before.

While monitored in the ER, the patient's rhythm suddenly converts to ventricular tachycardia, and he becomes pulseless and unresponsive. Which of the following would be the most appropriate initial management of this situation?

defibrillation
synchronized cardioversion
IV amiodarone
IV lidocaine
IV epinephrine

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The clinical scenario described is classic for an acute MI. The patient has multiple risk factors, including smoking, hypertension, and elevated cholesterol. His symptoms of crushing chest pain radiating to the left arm is commonly seen in this setting. Often the first electrocardiographic sign of acute ischemia is the development of hyperacute T waves. The ECG will usually show S-T segment elevations in the area of the involved occluded vessel, with reciprocal S-T segment depressions in uninvolved areas. This can be followed by the eventual resolution of S-T segment abnormalities and the development of T wave inversions and Q waves. Diffuse P-R depressions are often the initial manifestation of pericarditis, a less common cause of acute chest pain. This often progresses to diffuse S-T segment elevations, the presence of which helps to distinguish pericarditis from the focal S-T elevations more classically associated with a thrombosed coronary artery. Q waves would be unlikely to occur within 1 hour of the onset of symptoms. In this clinical setting, a normal ECG, while possible, would be less likely to occur.

Ventricular arrhythmias, both tachycardia and fibrillation, are recognized complications of acute MI. The presence of ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia should lead to the primary "ABCD" survey, as outlined in the American Heart Association's ACLS protocols. The mnemonic stands for airway, breathing, circulation, and defibrillation. Epinephrine, lidocaine, or amiodarone are reserved for the setting where defibrillation is ineffective. Synchronized cardioversion would be used in efforts to convert a patient's rhythm in the setting of a stable tachycardia.

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QUESTION: 146

A 55-year-old male is brought to the ED, by ambulance, because of crushing chest pain radiating to his left shoulder and arm that started 1 hour ago. He has a history of hypertension, high cholesterol, and has smoked a pack of cigarettes a day for 30 years. He has never had symptoms like this before. The patient's rhythm converts to asystole. What is the most appropriate first action to take?

IV epinephrine
IV atropine
discontinuation of resuscitation
direct current (DC) cardioversion
check a second monitor lead

Answer(s): E

Explanation:

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QUESTION: 147

A 55-year-old male is brought to the ED, by ambulance, because of crushing chest pain radiating to his left shoulder and arm that started 1 hour ago. He has a history of hypertension, high cholesterol, and has smoked a pack of cigarettes a day for 30 years. He has never had symptoms like this before. Fortunately, the patient survives this episode. As part of his long-term treatment, which of the following would be an appropriate therapeutic intervention to initiate due to its proven effect on survival rate?

flecainide
captopril
quinidine
digoxin
nitroglycerin

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

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QUESTION: 148

An 18-year-old female presents for follow-up of a rash. She states that she has been using OTC antifungal preparations without success. She used OTC cortisone cream with mild improvement, but the lesions never disappeared. Her condition also recurred with full severity once the cortisone cream was discontinued. Her family history reveals a first degree relative with similar rash. The rash is over the elbows, trunk, and scalp .

Which other physical finding would be consistent with your presumptive diagnosis?

velvety, hyperpigmented patches over the axilla and neck
pitting of the nails
oily scalp
subcutaneous nodules
multiple tender and tense vesicles and bullae

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Psoriasis is a benign chronic, inflammatory skin disorder with a genetic basis that affects approximately 2% of the population in the United States. The condition varies in its presentation from person to person, with some having only local involvement and others having a severe generalized involvement. The incidence occurs in a bimodal distribution, with peaks persons in their 20s and 50s. Those with earlier onset generally will have a more severe disease over the course of their lifetime. Psoriasis has several variants, or subtypes, including plaque type (most common), eruptive (guttate), generalized pustular, and erythrodermic psoriasis. Some patients may be asymptomatic or may have only minor itching. Others may have involvement of most of their body, with severe disfigurement and poor quality of life. Psoriasis may involve any skin area; however, areas such as the scalp, extensor surfaces, palms, soles, and nails should always be examined. The typical lesions are described as erythematous, well-demarcated plaques with overlying scales. Fine stippling (pitting) of the nails is highly suggestive of psoriasis. In addition to the skin findings, patients may also have arthritis. The lesions can be reactivated with local injury or irritation of normal skin (Koebner phenomenon). The diagnosis is predominantly clinical, based on the history and examination. There are no laboratory measures that will diagnose psoriasis. Skin biopsy, although not pathognomonic, would show features consistent with psoriasis and would help to rule out other similar appearing conditions.

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QUESTION: 145

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QUESTION: 146

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QUESTION: 147

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QUESTION: 148

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