QUESTION: 25

A 64-year-old male with a history of hypertension and tobacco abuse presents for follow-up after a routine physical during which he was found to have 45 red blood cells (RBCs) per high-power field (HPF) on a screening urinalysis. The urinalysis was negative for leukocytes, nitrites, epithelial cells, and ketones. The patient denies any complaints and the review of systems is essentially negative .

change of antihypertensive agent and recommendation to patient to discontinue smoking
image the upper and lower urinary tracts
antibiotics for 1 month
expectant management with follow-up urinalysis in 6 months E. nephrology consultation

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Asymptomatic microscopic hematuria is defined by the American Urological Association as three or more RBCs per high power field on urinary sediment from two out of three properly collected urinalyses. A proper sample can be a midstream clean-catch specimen. The urine dipstick is roughly 91100% sensitive and 65- 99% specific for detection of RBCs, Hgb, and myoglobin. Urine dipstick is not reliable in distinguishing myoglobin from Hgb or RBCs. Therefore, urinalysis with microscopy should be ordered to assess the number of RBCs per high power field. Microscopic hematuria is usually an incidental finding but deserves a thorough workup, as 10% can be due to malignancy. The initial approach is to repeat the urinalysis to rule out infection. If the urinalysis suggests infection by the presence of WBCs or nitrites, a culture should be ordered and the patient treated appropriately. If RBCs are present without any leukocytes, nitrites, or epithelial cells on the repeated urinalysis, a proper workup should ensue. After history and physical are done to rule out risk factors, comorbidities, or other etiologies to account for the hematuria, one must look to diagnostic tests. A serum creatinine is useful to assess for renal insufficiency. During the course of the workup, if the urinalysis and serum creatinine suggest a glomerular etiology (casts, elevated creatinine, dysmorphic RBCs) a renal consultation and possible renal biopsy may be warranted. Evaluation of the upper tract with either an IVP or CT scan of the abdomen/pelvis with and without contrast should be ordered to rule out renal cell carcinoma, nephrolithiasis, or aneurysms. Next, the lower tract should be visualized by cystoscopy and washings sent for cytology. If all the above workup is negative, the patient can be reassured and followed with a repeat urinalysis in 6 months.

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QUESTION: 26

The office urine dipstick is 91100% sensitive and 6599% specific for detection of RBCs, Hgb, and myoglobin.
Urinalysis must reveal a minimum of 5 RBCs per HPF in order to continue the workup.
The presence of epithelial cells makes the urinalysis invalid.
The presence of "large blood" on a urine dipstick effectively distinguishes RBCs from myoglobinuria.
Any urinalysis with RBCs should be recollected via a catheterized specimen prior to initiating a workup for hematuria.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

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QUESTION: 27

A 52-year-old man presents to the ED with a complaint of rectal bleeding and hematuria. He has a medical history significant for atrial fibrillation diagnosed 10 years ago and states that he takes metoprolol as well as warfarin for this condition. Upon examination, you find that his blood pressure is 122/78, his pulse is 84, his respiratory rate is 18, and his O2 saturation is 98% on room air. He has an irregularly irregular heart rhythm, gingival bleeding, and some bruises on his extremities. He has a positive fecal occult blood test, and laboratory studies return showing an international normalized ratio (INR) of 16.5. You order that the patient's warfarin be held. Which of the following is the most appropriate additional intervention at this time?

repeat INR measurement as an outpatient in 5 days
admit the patient to the hospital and conduct serial INR measurements
administer vitamin K1
administer fresh frozen plasma
administer vitamin K1 and fresh frozen plasma

Answer(s): E

Explanation:

This patient has a markedly supratherapeutic INR and clinical evidence of bleeding. Discontinuation or dosage reduction of warfarin is an appropriate intervention by itself in patients with an INR less than 5.0 or in patients without signs of bleeding. In patients with bleeding or with an INR greater than 5.0, however, further interventions are indicated. Vitamin K1 administration provides a more rapid reversal of the anticoagulation caused by warfarin, but it takes 68 hours to begin having an effect and up to 24 hours to achieve its maximal effect. Immediate reversal may be obtained by the administration of fresh frozen plasma intravenously in addition to vitamin K1

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QUESTION: 28

A72-year-old African American male presents for a routine health examination. He states that he would like to have a "screening for cancer." In the United States, based on his sex, race, and age, what is the most likely malignancy for this patient?

lung cancer
prostate cancer
colon cancer
testicular cancer
multiple myeloma

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Prostate cancer is the leading cancer in African American males in the United States. The cancer with the highest rate of mortality for the same subpopulation is lung cancer. Of African-American men diagnosed with a new cancer, approximately 42% will have prostate cancer, 14.6% lung cancer, and 10% colorectal cancer. The leading causes of cancer deaths in the same population are lung (28.4%), prostate (15.6%), and colorectal cancer (10.5%).

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QUESTION: 25

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QUESTION: 27

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