A mother brings her 15-year-old son in for a preparticipation sports physical examination. She feels that her son has not yet undergone pubertal changes and that makes her concerned.Which of the following physical examination findings is usually the first sign of the onset of puberty in males?
Answer(s): A
Pubarche in females is usually earlier than in males. Delayed puberty alone may be a pathologic condition; its presence in conjunction with short stature makes a pathologic state more likely. Males do, indeed, have adrenarche. Panhypopituitarism is a cause of puberty delay, but not a common one. Undiagnosed hypothyroidism can be a cause of pubertal delay, and thyroid function testing should be a part of the routine evaluation of this problem. The onset of puberty in males is usually signaled by an increase in testicular volume. This is commonly seen in conjunction with lengthening of the phallus and thinning of the scrotal skin. As a result of puberty, the other findings (deepening of the voice, increased muscle mass, and increased facial hair) may be seen, but the first of the listed findings to appear is increased testicular volume. In females, puberty is usually signaled by the enlargement of breast buds.
A mother brings her 21/2-year-old daughter to your office for evaluation of frequent urination. The mother relates that the daughter seems to be urinating more frequently, up to 810 times in a day, over the past week. The girl complains of pain when she urinates, but the urine does not have any different odor to it. The mother says that the girl otherwise seems fine and still loves to take her bubble bath at night. The girl does not have a fever, weight loss, diarrhea, or vomiting.What is the most appropriate next step in evaluating this girl?
Answer(s): C
Polyuria in a prepubertal female may indicate the presence of a UTI. AUTI must be excluded as the first step. Polyuria may also indicate vulvovaginitis. Vulvovaginitis in a prepubertal female is usually irritation and hygiene related. The presence of dysuria with the polyuria would make the utility of checking fingerstick glucose, as a screening test for diabetes, low yield. The nightly use of bubble baths makes chemical urethritis the most likely cause of this girl's polyuria and dysuria. Diabetes mellitus would present typically with polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss, and decrease in energy. There would also be no dysuria unless there were a concomitant UTI. Diabetes insipidus is a very rare disease in childhood and would be unlikely in an otherwise healthy girl. The presence of a retained foreign body (typically toilet paper) is usually seen in conjunction with a vaginal odor and discharge as well.
A mother brings her 21/2-year-old daughter to your office for evaluation of frequent urination. The mother relates that the daughter seems to be urinating more frequently, up to 810 times in a day, over the past week. The girl complains of pain when she urinates, but the urine does not have any different odor to it. The mother says that the girl otherwise seems fine and still loves to take her bubble bath at night. The girl does not have a fever, weight loss, diarrhea, or vomiting What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer(s): B
A mother relates seeing worms in her 3-yearold's stool. She describes them as 1-cm long white threads that seemed to be moving. What is the most likely infectious etiology for this finding?
Answer(s): E
Pinworms (E. vermicularis) are common nematodes (roundworms) found in children. It usually is a benign, incidental finding, but can present with perianal pruritus or small, white, threadlike worms on visual examination. Ascariasis is the most common roundworm infection in humans, but these worms are larger. T. canis (dog roundworm) is another nematode and is the cause of visceral larval migrans. D. latum (fish tape worm) and Taenia solium (pork tape worm) are cestodes, which are long, flat worms.
A 14-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department for evaluation of fever and headache. The mother relates that her son has had a worsening headache for 56 days. She says that she took him to a walk-in clinic, and he was put on amoxicillin for a sinus infection. His headaches have been getting worse and that he is now having fevers as high as 103.6°F . The mother says that he normally is very active and that he currently has a summer job at a local park clearing out underbrush. Since he has become ill, he has had such a decrease in energy that he cannot go to work. He has had a decrease in his appetite and has been sleeping more. He denies any sore throat, abdominal pain, chest pain, dysuria, vomiting, or diarrhea. On examination, he is an uncomfortable young man whose vital signs are: temp 101.9°F, RR 26, HR 124, and BP 79/56. is head, ear, eye, nose, and throat examination reveals normal TMs, a mildly erythematous hypopharynx, and some shotty cervical lymphadenopathy. His lungs are clear. His cardiac examination is normal. His liver edge is palpable just below the right costal margin and is mildly tender. His spleen is not palpable. His skin examination is normal with the exception of scattered petechiae around his ankles and wrists. A CBC reveals WBC 13,000 with 65% segs and 22% lymphs, hematocrit of 35, and platelet count of 95,000. His electrolytes reveal a Na 125, K 5.1, Cl 102, and bicarbonate 21. His BUN and Cr are normal.The best treatment course would include which of the following?
Typical symptoms include a summertime fever, headache, petechial rash, thrombocytopenia, and hyponatremia. This may be mistaken for a systemic enteroviral infection, or enteroviral encephalitis, but the presence of thrombocytopenia and hyponatremia would exclude this diagnosis. Still disease (systemic- onset JRA) would have an elevation of acute-phase reactants, including the WBC and platelet count. Fourteen years old is an unlikely age for Kawasaki disease, and the acute phase reactants would likewise also be elevated.RMSF is a very serious infectious illness. Appropriate antimicrobial therapy, usually doxycycline, needs to be started as soon as the diagnosis is seriously considered, as this can prevent some of the more severe sequelae. The use of systemic corticosteroids has no place in the management of RMSF. Confirmation of RMSF is serologic. Rising IgG titers or the presence of IgM titers to R. rickettsii is a confirmation of RMSF
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