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Free AACN CCRN Exam Questions (page: 2)

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PDF with 150 Questions

A patient with a history of asthma presents with acute onset of dyspnea, a non-productive cough, and tachypne

  1. He is very anxious, restless, and tachycardic.
    Which of the following is a first-line drug for these symptoms?
  2. leukotriene inhibitor
  3. anticholinergic
  4. mast cell stabilizer
  5. beta-agonist

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Beta-agonists are the first-line drugs for acute asthma exacerbations because they rapidly reverse bronchoconstriction and improve airflow. They act by stimulating beta-2 receptors in the smooth muscle of the airways, causing relaxation and dilation. Beta-agonists can be administered by inhalation, nebulization, or injection. Examples of beta-agonists include albuterol, levalbuterol, and terbutaline.


Reference:

Management of Acute Asthma Exacerbations | AAFP: This article states that "Quick-relief medicines include: Albuterol (ProAir HFA, Proventil-HFA, Ventolin HFA, others). Levalbuterol (Xopenex, Xopenex HFA)."

Asthma attack - Diagnosis and treatment - Mayo Clinic: This article states that "If you're in the yellow zone, the plan will tell you how many puffs of your quick-relief medicine to take and how often you can repeat the dose. Young children or people who have difficulty with an inhaler use a device called a nebulizer to inhale the medicine in a mist. Quick-relief medicines include: Albuterol (ProAir HFA, Proventil-HFA, Ventolin HFA, others). Levalbuterol (Xopenex, Xopenex HFA)."



A patient is admitted with Gl bleeding. During the assessment, the nurse notes the patient to be tremulous, anxious, and startles every time he is touched by the nurse.
Which of the following is the most pertinent part of the patient's history to obtain?

  1. last alcohol intake
  2. medication history
  3. time of last meal
  4. psychiatric history

Answer(s): A

Explanation:



The patient's symptoms of tremulousness, anxiety, and startle response suggest that he may be experiencing alcohol withdrawal, which can occur within hours to days after the last drink. Alcohol withdrawal can cause severe complications, such as seizures, delirium tremens, and death, if not treated promptly and appropriately. Alcohol withdrawal can also worsen GI bleeding by increasing gastric acid secretion, impairing clotting factors, and causing hypertension and tachycardia. Therefore, the most pertinent part of the patient's history to obtain is the last alcohol intake, which can help determine the risk and severity of withdrawal and guide the management of the patient.


Reference:

Management of moderate and severe alcohol withdrawal syndromes: This article states that "Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal occur because alcohol is a central nervous system depressant.
When a person drinks frequently, the brain compensates for alcohol's depressant effects by increasing the activity of excitatory neurotransmitters, such as norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, and glutamate, and reducing the activity of inhibitory neurotransmitters, such as gamma- aminobutyric acid (GABA).
When alcohol intake is abruptly discontinued or reduced, this neuroadaptation is unmasked, resulting in a hyperexcitable state that is responsible for the characteristic withdrawal symptoms."
Alcoholic Gastritis: Causes, Symptoms and Treatment: This article states that "Alcohol Gastritis is a type of acute gastritis and is caused by excessive alcohol consumption. The sudden inflammation of the stomach lining can be very painful and cause severe stomach cramping, irritability and vomiting.
While consuming too much alcohol is the main cause of Alcohol Gastritis, it often develops in connection with some sort of infection, direct irritation or localized tissue damage. It can be caused by: Taking non-steroidal, anti-inflammatory medications like aspirin or ibuprofen (i.e., NSAIDs). Certain bacterial infections. Bile reflux from proximal small intestine. Autoimmune disorders." Can You Get Internal Bleeding from Alcohol Abuse: This article states that "Over time, alcohol abuse starts to eat away at the stomach lining. Continued drinking sets the stage for alcoholic gastritis to develop. Under these conditions, internal bleeding from alcohol abuse takes the form of blood oozing from stomach lines on an ongoing basis."



A patient's IV with norepinephrine (Levophed) infusing is red, swollen, and the IV pump is alarming.
A nurse should anticipate

  1. administering phentolamine (Regitine).
  2. providing a warm compress.
  3. lowering the extremity below heart level.
  4. removing the IV immediately.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Phentolamine (Regitine) is the antidote for norepinephrine extravasation, which is the leakage of the vasopressor from the vein into the surrounding tissue. Phentolamine reverses the vasoconstriction and ischemia caused by norepinephrine by blocking the alpha-adrenergic receptors. Phentolamine should be administered intradermally around the site of extravasation as soon as possible, and the infusion should be stopped but the IV catheter should not be removed until some of the norepinephrine is aspirated. A warm compress may worsen the tissue damage by increasing the absorption of norepinephrine, and lowering the extremity may increase the edema and pain. Removing the IV immediately may prevent the aspiration of norepinephrine and the administration of phentolamine.


Reference:

Episode 240: What to do with norepinephrine extravasation: This article explains the steps to take when norepinephrine extravasates, including the use of phentolamine, and the reasons to avoid cold compress, lowering the extremity, and removing the IV.
What are current recommendations for treatment of drug extravasation?: This article summarizes the latest recommendations for treatment of extravasation, and lists phentolamine as the immediate topical therapy for norepinephrine extravasation.



A patient who had a liver resection now has a copious amount of serous drainage from the surgical incision.
Which of the following should a nurse anticipate when caring for this patient?

  1. preparing for an incision and debridement of the wound
  2. applying several abdominal dressings
  3. administering antibiotics
  4. applying a drainage pouch to the site

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

A copious amount of serous drainage from a liver resection incision may indicate a bile leak, which can cause pain, infection, and delayed healing. The nurse should anticipate applying several abdominal dressings to absorb the fluid and protect the wound. The nurse should also monitor the patient for signs of infection, such as fever, increased white blood cell count, and foul-smelling drainage. The nurse should notify the surgeon of the excessive drainage and follow the orders for further interventions, such as imaging studies, drainage catheter placement, or surgical repair. Antibiotics may be prescribed, but they are not the first-line treatment for a bile leak. Incision and debridement of the wound may be necessary if there is necrotic tissue or infection, but it is not the initial action. Applying a drainage pouch to the site may not be sufficient to contain the large amount of fluid and may increase the risk of skin breakdown.


Reference:

Problems after cancer surgery to remove part of your liver: This article states that "The bile ducts connect the liver and gallbladder to the small bowel. There is a risk of bile leaking from the ducts on the cut surface of the liver. This may cause pain, sickness and a high temperature. Rarely, you might need another operation to repair the leak."
Understanding Liver Abscess Treatment - Saint Luke's Health System: This article states that "The provider uses CT scan or ultrasound to help place the wire in the right spot. A thin, flexible tube (catheter) is then placed over the wire and into the abscess. The tube is left in place for 5 to 7 days to drain the fluid. In some cases, surgery may be done to cut into the liver abscess and drain it." How Much Time Does it Take to Recover from Liver Surgery?: This article states that "If you have any drainage from your incision or if the area around your incision is puffy or red, visit your surgeon. Take a shower every day with warm water.
When you are ready to take solid foods, make sure to eat 4 to 6 small meals every day. Do not lift heavy weights for 8 weeks after your surgery."



A patient is receiving therapeutic hypothermia post-cardiac arrest.
Which of the following orders should a nurse clarify?

  1. chemistry labs every day
  2. ABGs every 4 hours and with any ventilator changes
  3. hourly intake and output
  4. sequential compression devices

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are not recommended for patients receiving therapeutic hypothermia (TH) post-cardiac arrest, because they may interfere with the cooling process and increase the risk of skin injury. SCDs are used to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) by applying intermittent pneumatic pressure to the lower extremities, but they may also increase peripheral blood flow and heat exchange, which can counteract the effects of TH. SCDs may also cause skin breakdown, blisters, or burns in patients with impaired sensation and reduced perfusion due to TH. Therefore, a nurse should clarify the order for SCDs and consider alternative methods of DVT prophylaxis, such as pharmacological agents or early mobilization.


Reference:

Therapeutic Hypothermia (TH) Education Components: This document states that "Avoid use of sequential compression devices (SCDs) during cooling phase as they may interfere with cooling process and increase risk of skin injury."
Sequential Compression Devices: Clinical Effectiveness, Cost- Effectiveness and Guidelines: This document states that "One evidence-based guideline from the American Heart Association (AHA) and the American Stroke Association (ASA) recommended against the use of SCDs in patients undergoing therapeutic hypothermia after cardiac arrest, as they may interfere with the cooling process and increase the risk of skin injury."



The nurse is caring for a patient with neutropenia secondary to chemotherapy.
When communicating dietary needs to the provider, the nurse should request which of the following to improve the patient's immune function?

  1. low protein diet
  2. total parental nutrition
  3. high carbohydrate diet
  4. nutritional supplements

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Nutritional supplements are beneficial for patients with neutropenia secondary to chemotherapy, as they can help provide adequate calories, protein, vitamins, and minerals that are essential for immune function and tissue repair. Chemotherapy can cause side effects such as nausea, vomiting,

loss of appetite, taste changes, and mouth sores, which can make it difficult for patients to eat enough food and meet their nutritional needs. Nutritional supplements can be in the form of oral drinks, shakes, bars, or powders, or they can be administered through a feeding tube or intravenously. The nurse should request nutritional supplements that are appropriate for the patient's condition, preferences, and tolerance, and that are compatible with the neutropenic diet and food safety guidelines. The nurse should also monitor the patient's weight, hydration, and laboratory values, and report any signs of malnutrition, infection, or intolerance to the provider.


Reference:

Nutrition for the Person With Cancer During Treatment: A Guide for Patients and Families: This article states that "Nutritional supplements are products that can be used to add nutrients to your diet or to lower your risk of health problems. They can be in pill, capsule, tablet, or liquid form. They might have vitamins, minerals, amino acids, herbs, or other substances. Some examples of common supplements are calcium, iron, omega-3 fatty acids, vitamin C, and vitamin D. You might need supplements if you cannot get enough nutrients from foods or if you have certain health conditions that might cause a deficiency, such as cancer, diabetes, or chronic diarrhea." Nutrition in Cancer Care (PDQ®)­Patient Version: This article states that "Nutritional support is therapy for people who do not get enough nourishment by eating or drinking. You may need nutritional support if you have trouble swallowing, have lost your appetite, or are losing weight. Nutritional support can be given in different ways: Enteral nutrition is liquid food given through a tube (called a feeding tube) into the stomach or small intestine. Parenteral nutrition is a liquid mixture of nutrients given through a vein (intravenous or IV). Oral nutrition is food or liquid taken by mouth. This includes nutritional supplements, such as drinks, shakes, bars, or powders that have protein, carbohydrates, fat, vitamins, and minerals."
Nutrition and Cancer: What You Need to Know: This article states that "Nutritional supplements can help you meet your calorie and protein needs when you are not able to eat enough food. They can also provide extra vitamins and minerals. There are many types of nutritional supplements, such as drinks, shakes, puddings, bars, and powders. Some are designed for people with cancer and have extra calories and protein. Your doctor, nurse, or dietitian can help you choose the best supplement for you. You can buy some supplements at the grocery store or pharmacy, but others may need a prescription."



Appropriate outcomes for a patient with status asthmaticus include

  1. increased PaCO2 and decreased FEV1.
  2. decreased peak flow rates and decreased wheezing.
  3. paradoxical breathing and increased FEV1.
  4. normal PaCO2 and increased FEV1.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The appropriate outcomes for a patient with status asthmaticus are normal PaCO2 and increased FEV1. Status asthmaticus is a severe and life-threatening asthma exacerbation that does not respond to conventional treatment. It causes severe bronchoconstriction, air trapping, and mucus plugging, leading to hypoxemia, hypercapnia, and respiratory failure. The goals of treatment are to reverse the airway obstruction, improve gas exchange, and prevent complications. PaCO2 is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood, which reflects the adequacy of ventilation. FEV1 is the forced expiratory volume in one second, which measures the amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled in the first second of a breath. It reflects the degree of bronchoconstriction and airflow limitation. A patient with status asthmaticus typically has elevated PaCO2 and reduced FEV1 due to poor ventilation and severe obstruction. Therefore, normalizing PaCO2 and increasing FEV1 indicate improvement in the patient's condition and response to treatment.


Reference:

Status Asthmaticus: Symptoms, Causes, Diagnosis, and Treatment - Healthline: This article states that "Status asthmaticus is a severe form of asthma with symptoms similar to a typical asthma attack. But for status asthmaticus, symptoms may worsen as the asthma attack continues. Status asthmaticus is an older, less precise term for what's now more commonly known as acute severe asthma or a severe asthma exacerbation. It refers to an asthma attack that doesn't improve with traditional treatments, such as inhaled bronchodilators. These attacks can last for several minutes or even hours."
Status Asthmaticus (Severe Acute Asthma) - WebMD: This article states that "Status asthmaticus is a severe asthma attack that doesn't get better with your usual treatments. It can be life-threatening and needs urgent medical attention. If you have a bad asthma attack and your rescue inhaler or your nebulizer doesn't help, you need medical care right away. If an attack comes on quickly and it doesn't respond to regular treatment, it can lead to status asthmaticus." Management of Status Asthmaticus | SpringerLink: This article states that "Status asthmaticus is a life-threatening condition characterized by progressive respiratory failure despite aggressive treatment. It is defined as an acute exacerbation of asthma that remains unresponsive to initial treatment with bronchodilators. Status asthmaticus can vary in severity from mild to fatal. The pathophysiology of status asthmaticus is complex and involves airway inflammation, bronchospasm, airway edema, mucus plugging, and increased airway resistance. The clinical manifestations of status asthmaticus include dyspnea, wheezing, cough, chest tightness, tachypnea, tachycardia, hypoxemia, and hypercapnia. The diagnosis of status asthmaticus is based on history, physical examination, and laboratory tests, such as arterial blood gas analysis, spirometry, and chest radiography. The management of status asthmaticus consists of oxygen therapy, inhaled beta-2 agonists, systemic corticosteroids, and adjunctive therapies, such as anticholinergics, magnesium sulfate, ketamine, and noninvasive or invasive mechanical ventilation. The goals of treatment are to relieve bronchoconstriction, reduce airway inflammation, correct hypoxemia, normalize or reduce carbon dioxide levels, and avoid or treat complications."



Which of the following is a late finding in hypovolemic shock?

  1. tachycardia
  2. UO greater than 30 mL/hr
  3. cool, dry skin
  4. hypotension

Answer(s): D

Explanation:



Hypotension, or low blood pressure, is a late finding in hypovolemic shock, which means that it occurs when the condition has progressed to a severe stage. Hypotension indicates that the body's compensatory mechanisms, such as vasoconstriction, tachycardia, and increased cardiac output, have failed to maintain adequate perfusion and oxygen delivery to the vital organs. Hypotension is a sign of impending circulatory collapse and organ failure, and requires immediate intervention to restore blood volume and blood pressure. Hypotension is usually defined as a systolic blood pressure below 90 mmHg or a mean arterial pressure below 65 mmHg.


Reference:

Hypovolemic Shock: Causes, Symptoms and Treatment - Cleveland Clinic: This article states that "As you keep losing blood or fluids, your systolic (top or first number) blood pressure comes down." and "Your blood pressure drops very low and your heart rate and breathing get faster."



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