Amazon AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Exam Actual Questions
AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 (Page 10 )

• You want a single source of truth for partner CIDRs that automatically propagates to all accounts.
• Security groups can reference a prefix list, and AWS RAM can share a prefix list across accounts in the same region.

• A (DynamoDB + Lambda per account): not centralized; requires cross-account automation and ongoing maintenance.
• B (Prefix list with Lambda in each account): still relies on per-account automation; extra steps to keep SGs in sync.
• C (Prefix list shared via AWS RAM; SGs reference the prefix list): central, scalable solution. Update the central prefix list; the changes automatically apply to all accounts’ security groups that reference it.
• D (S3 + Lambda): similar maintenance burden to A; not as efficient or automatic.

• Forward secrecy means the session keys are generated using ephemeral keys (e.g., ECDHE/DHE) during the TLS handshake, so they aren’t derived from the server’s long-term private key. This protects past sessions if the private key is compromised later.
• Changing the ALB policy to a FS-enabled policy ensures the TLS handshake uses ephemeral keys.

• A: Simply requiring TLS 1.2 does not guarantee forward secrecy, as TLS 1.2 can use non-ephemeral (RSA) key exchanges depending on the cipher suite.
• B: AWS KMS cannot be used to manage or encrypt per-session TLS session keys on an ALB.
• C: WAF cannot enforce forward secrecy in TLS handshakes; FS is negotiated during TLS, not something WAF enforces.

• In the ALB/or listener settings, choose a security policy that supports forward secrecy (FS-enabled cipher suites, e.g., ECDHE-based suites).
• If your environment supports TLS 1.3, that inherently provides FS as well.

• Multiple AWS accounts: Create a separate account for each department or workload. This provides clear isolation and makes it easier to track each department’s usage and costs for chargeback.
• Consolidated billing: AWS Organizations can combine billing for multiple accounts into one central payer account. The company can still view costs by account while managing payment centrally.

• Placement groups: Control how EC2 instances are physically placed for networking or performance; they do not provide departmental billing separation.
• Edge locations: Infrastructure used by services such as Amazon CloudFront; unrelated to chargeback.
• AWS Config: Records and evaluates resource configurations and compliance; it is not a billing-separation mechanism.

• Why: Crisis management relies on established, repeatable procedures for responding to an incident (activation of the crisis team, escalation paths, communications, containment actions). This ensures a coordinated, timely, and auditable response.

• Why not the others:

• Co to znaczy: transakcje zachowuja sie tak, jakby byly wykonywane jeden po drugim. Dzieki temu nie ma brudnych odczytów, niepowtarzalnych odczytów ani phantom reads.

• Implementacja: PostgreSQL uzywa SSI (Serializable Snapshot Isolation). W praktyce oznacza to, ze jesli wykryje konflikt miedzy transakcjami, jedna z nich zostanie zakonczona bledem “serialization failure” i trzeba ja ponowic.

• Zalózmy tabele orders(customer_id int, amount int).

• Transakcja T1:

• Transakcja T2, równoczesnie:

• T1 ponownie wykonuje to zapytanie:

• Version control provides a single source of truth for metadata changes and tracks every modification.
• It supports branching and merging, so each feature can be developed in isolation and later merged without overwriting others.
• It allows diffs and conflict resolution, making it easier to manage dependencies across features and ensure a stable release.

• Setup Audit Trail: only logs who/change when something happened; it doesn’t prevent overwriting or manage cross-feature dependencies.
• Change Sets: used to deploy changes between orgs, not to coordinate parallel development or prevent conflicts across ongoing sprints.

• Correct answer: B (No, it does not).

• A purchase agreement in Dynamics 365 SCM is a vendor-side price arrangement. It sets prices/discounts for what your company buys from suppliers, not for what you sell to customers.
• The objective in Question 2 is to give clients a quantity-based discount on items they purchase from you. To accomplish this, you should configure a sales price / trade agreement (on the customer/sales side), not a purchase agreement.
• In a sales price trade agreement, you can define quantity breaks such as:

• Create a Sales price trade agreement for the item and relevant customer (or customer group).
• Add quantity breaks: 51–100 with 10% discount, 101+ with 15% discount.
• Ensure the agreement is active for the desired date range.

• Recovery procedures actually work
• Recovery time and recovery point objectives can be met
• Staff understand their responsibilities
• Contact details, dependencies, and technical configurations are accurate
• Gaps or conflicts exist in the plan

• Not version-controlled: Creates a risk of using an outdated copy, but the plan might still be effective.
• Contact information needs updating: This is a specific weakness that can be corrected, often identified during testing.
• Not approved by senior management: Approval is important for authority and resource commitment, but an untested plan presents the most direct risk that recovery will fail when needed.

• A — SCIM synchronizes changes to user attributes from the identity provider to GitHub.
• B — SCIM deactivates GitHub accounts when users are removed or deactivated in the identity provider.
• D — SCIM automates user provisioning when new users are added to the identity provider.

• C: SCIM does not delete organization repositories.
• E: SCIM does not generate REST API authentication tokens.
• F: SCIM handles identity lifecycle management, not repository permission configuration based on roles.

• Correct answer: A) Hashing

• Why: Hashing produces a fixed-size digest of the software. If the final build is altered in any way, the hash will change, enabling you to detect tampering by comparing the stored digest with a freshly computed one.

• Why not the others:

• This is a lookup relationship. Salesforce does not cascade access from a child (Opportunity) to its parent (Account) via implicit sharing.
• To view the Account, the user must have explicit access to the Account (via its OWD/sharing, or object permissions).

• The user has Read/View (or higher) on Account via profile/permission set.
• Manual sharing or a sharing rule grants that Account to the user.
• The Account is exposed by a broader permission like View All/Modify All on Account.
• Role hierarchy with Grant Access Using Hierarchies could grant access to Accounts owned by others, if applicable.

• Correct answer: D) Microservices using API

• Why:

• Control plane: Managed by Databricks and contains the Databricks web application, workspace services, cluster management, and job orchestration.
• Data plane: Runs in your cloud account and contains compute resources such as:

• Worker node: Data plane compute.
• Driver node: Data plane compute.
• JDBC data source: Usually an external data system.
• Databricks Filesystem (DBFS): Provides storage access and is backed by cloud object storage rather than being entirely part of the control plane.

• A — IDS attack signatures: An IDS generally detects suspicious network activity but does not necessarily scan uploaded PDF files or prevent them from being accepted.
• C — Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers; it does not inspect files for malware.
• D — WAF command-injection blocking: A WAF can help block web attacks such as command injection, SQL injection, and cross-site scripting, but this option does not specifically address malicious PDF uploads.

• IPv6 address types:

• The block FF00::/12 is a subset of the multicast space, so it represents multicast addresses.
• Therefore, this block forwards packets to a multicast address (to multiple receivers) rather than to a single unicast address.
• The other prefixes are unicast and would deliver to a single interface.

• Short answer: The correct term is Anti-forensics (option D), not “Felony.”

• Why: The actions described—hiding files in slack space, changing file headers, placing suspicious files in executables, and altering metadata—are classic anti-forensics techniques. They’re used to hinder or obscure forensic analysis, not to label the act as a legal category.

• About the options:

• Note: The provided answer key lists B (Felony), which is misleading for this exam objective. The exam typically tests knowledge of forensics concepts, where anti-forensics is the correct category.

• S3 Versioning stores all versions of an object. If an object is overwritten or deleted, you can recover the previous version using its version ID.
• This protects against accidental deletion or overwriting because the original data remains accessible as an older version.
• How to enable:

• Practical notes:

• S3 Lifecycle rules: automate moving/expiring data, not specifically protection against deletion.
• S3 bucket policies: control access but don’t inherently preserve previous data.
• S3 server-side encryption: protects data at rest, not against deletion/overwrite.

• Answer: D

• The strongest security comes from enforcing access at the storage layer. An IAM policy scoped to the Cognito identity prefix restricts each user to their own S3 prefix (folder), so users can only access their own files regardless of client or server code.
• This per-user isolation reduces risk of cross-user data access and is more robust than UI validation or Lambda/API validation alone.
• Implementation note: attach a policy to the Cognito identity role that allows actions on arn:aws:s3:::your-bucket/${cognito-identity.amazonaws.com:sub}/* (per-user prefix). Ensure TLS in transit and enable at-rest encryption (SSE-S3 or SSE-KMS). Use multipart upload for large files up to 300 MB.

• Correct choice: Box 1 = Yes, Box 2 = Yes, Box 3 = No (Answer: A)

• Box 1: Yes – Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager provides a risk-based compliance score that helps you understand your overall compliance posture. The score reflects how well you’re meeting regulatory requirements and internal policies.
• Box 2: Yes – It also offers step-by-step remediation guidance through actionable “improvement actions.” These guide you to implement fixes and align controls, often with links to the relevant consoles.
• Box 3: No – Compliance Manager is not part of Microsoft Defender. It is part of Microsoft Purview. Defender is a separate security product family, while Compliance Manager is in Purview for compliance risk and remediation.

• Use Purview Compliance Manager to view your compliance score and follow improvement actions.
• Improvement actions provide actionable steps and guidance for remediation.
• Defender and Purview are distinct services; do not confuse their scopes.

• Geo-redundant storage (GRS) replicates data to a secondary Azure region, but the secondary copy is normally unavailable for read access.
• RA-GRS provides geo-replication and read-only access to the secondary region, satisfying all requirements.
• Zone-redundant storage (ZRS) replicates data across availability zones within the same Azure region, not separate geographic regions.
• Locally redundant storage (LRS) keeps copies within a single datacenter or region and does not provide geographic resiliency.

• C — Schema.describeSObjects(new String[]{myObject})[0].fields.getMap()

• D — Schema.getGlobalDescribe().get(myObject).getDescribe().fields.getMap()

• A: sObjectType is not used this way, and fieldSet() is not the appropriate method for retrieving all fields.
• B: mySObject.myObject is not valid dynamic Apex syntax.

• Correct answer: A. Inbound data transfer from the internet

• Why: AWS does not charge for data transferred into AWS from the internet. Inbound data transfer is free, regardless of the amount (in this case, 2 TB). The other options involve data leaving AWS or moving between AWS regions/AZs, which incur costs:

1. Remote access to a Windows PC
2. Full chat and optional game-console functions

• Windows Remote Desktop (RDP) uses TCP 3389. The router needs a port-forwarding rule that sends incoming traffic on that port to the Windows PC’s internal IP address.
• The game console should connect through the wireless AP. Using WPA2-PSK provides the required wireless security while allowing normal online, chat, and optional services.
• The firewall should separate the internal network from the screened subnet. Its screened-subnet-side address is shown as 10.100.0.1.
• Devices must be placed in the correct network locations: the PC behind the router, the console on the wireless AP, and the firewall between the appropriate network segments.

• In the AWS shared responsibility model, AWS manages the security of the “infrastructure,” including the physical hardware and underlying virtualization.
• The customer is responsible for everything else in the cloud stack: the guest OS on EC2, the NoSQL database software running on it, data, patching the OS, and configuring access controls like security groups.
• So, for a self-managed NoSQL database on EC2, AWS would handle the physical hardware, while you would patch the guest OS and manage DB availability, backups, and security.

• Coordinate and manage the assessment team
• Assign assessment activities
• Direct interviews, examinations, and tests
• Ensure the assessment follows the CAP

• Answer key: Lead Assessor — likely wrong
• CAP-based answer: C3PAO

• The question asks why some tasks appear locked in the HR Guided Setup Module’s Task view.
• The options are:

• C) They require other tasks to be completed first. In guided setup flows, tasks are usually gated by prerequisites to ensure proper sequencing and data/configuration dependencies. You typically unlock a task only after the necessary preceding tasks are finished.

• A) Elevated roles can restrict access in some contexts, but guided setup tasks are commonly gated by prerequisites rather than solely by role.
• B) Deprecation isn’t the general pattern for “locked” tasks in the guided setup.
• D) A plugin activation could unlock certain features, but the common gating mechanism is task dependencies, not plugin state.

• The page shows the answer as D, but based on how HR Guided Setup usually works, the more accurate reason is typically C (prerequisites). If you’re studying, treat C as the conceptual answer and be aware the listed key may be incorrect. If you want, I can walk through each option in more detail.

• Automation handles repetitive tasks, and orchestration coordinates responses across tools (SIEM, SOAR, EDR, etc.).
• This allows the security team to process more events with the same number of people, improving throughput and response times.
• Analysts can focus on more complex tasks like investigation and threat hunting instead of manual triage.

• It increases complexity: automation can reduce complexity when well-implemented; complexity is not the main intended benefit.
• It removes technical debt: automation/OR focuses on current incident response efficiency, not primarily on architectural debt.
• It adds additional guard rails: governance is important but not the core value of automation/orchestration within a SIEM.

• What the scenario asks: You have a Power BI semantic model that pulls from multiple sources (Azure SQL Database and SharePoint Online), must support a single dataset for three reports, keep data current (daily refresh by 7 AM PT), and apply RLS to limit sales data by region. You need to choose a storage mode for the tables.

• Correct choice: Dual storage mode.

• Why Dual fits:

• Key concepts:

• IKE: Negotiates security parameters for IPsec VPNs; it does not identify switch ports.
• VLAN: A logical network segmentation method, not a discovery protocol.
• netstat: Displays local network connections and listening services, but cannot identify the physical switch or port.

• What it’s asking: In an ARM template, for an Availability Set, what value should you set for the property platformFaultDomainCount to maximize availability during fabric failures or maintenance?

• Key concept: Fault domains are groups of hardware that can fail independently. By spreading VMs across more fault domains, you reduce the risk that a single hardware fault takes out many VMs.

• Important detail: For managed Availability Sets, the number of fault domains you can use varies by region — typically 2 or 3.

• What to choose: Set platformFaultDomainCount to the maximum supported in your region. In most regions this is 3, which gives you the best resilience. If your region only supports 2, you’d use 2.

• Answer: 3 (Max Value). In ARM template syntax, this would appear as "platformFaultDomainCount": 3 (within the Availability Set resource).

• Used for communication on the local link or LAN segment
• Automatically generated on IPv6-enabled interfaces
• Not routed by routers to other networks
• Commonly used by devices to communicate with their local IPv6 router
• Begins with FE80 through FEBF

• FC00::/7 — unique local unicast
• FE80::/10 — link-local unicast
• FF00::/8 — multicast
• 2000::/3 — global unicast

kusto 
Event | where EventType == "error"

• == is the KQL equality operator.
• -eq is a PowerShell operator, not KQL.
• is is not the correct equality operator in this context.

text 
Event | where EventType –eq "error"

• Event | search "error" — valid, broad search.
• search in (Event) "error" — valid, broad search.
• Event | where EventType == "error" — valid, targeted filter.

• ?????? CPU
• ?????????????????
• ??????????????????????????
• ???????????? throughput
• ??????????????????????????????

• A ??????? system software ????????????????????????????????? ??????????????????????????????????
• B ?????????????????????????? ????????????????????????? ?????????????????????????????
• D ????????????????????????? ?????????????? ?????????????????????????????????????????

• wyjasnic istniejace pytania z tej strony,
• wskazac, dlaczego dana odpowiedz jest poprawna lub bledna (z uwzglednieniem celów egzaminu),
• omówic koncepcje zwiazane z Google Cloud AI.

Simple explanation

• The Azure VPN gateway to connect to
• Authentication settings
• Routes for networks that the client can access

• Why: Table.Profile returns a per-column profile that includes statistics such as count, null count, distinct count, and standard deviation. It also provides min/max and average where applicable, which matches the requested metrics (Count, Average, Null count, Distinct count, Standard deviation).
• Syntax: Table.Profile(table as table, optional additionalAggregates as nullable list) as table
• How it helps: After running Table.Profile on your table, you can extract the per-column stats you need and display them in your semantic model or report.

• Users retain their existing usernames and passwords.
• Existing accounts can be used to access Azure-based resources.
• Administrators avoid manually recreating thousands of accounts.
• The transition is less disruptive before the on-premises data center is retired.

• Security Development Operations (SDO): a security-focused take on DevOps, integrating security into the development pipeline.
• Service Data Object (SDO): a data representation used in some middleware or enterprise apps.
• Software-Defined Overlay (SDO): a networking overlay concept.
• Secure Data Object: a generic data-security term.

• Interactive development and exploration
• Small datasets
• Lightweight transformations or testing
• Avoiding the overhead and cost of multiple workers

• Automated reports: Jobs may benefit from job clusters or SQL warehouses.
• Working with SQL in Databricks SQL: Databricks SQL warehouses are the relevant compute option.
• Automatically scaling for larger data: A multi-node cluster with autoscaling is more suitable.
• Large amounts of data: Distributed worker nodes are generally needed.

• As the project progresses, you gain information, refine requirements, and lock down baselines (scope, schedule, cost). This reduces overall risk and uncertainty because more is known and addressed.
• At the same time, changes become more costly over time. Later changes can affect already approved baselines, cause rework, impact the critical path, require more coordination, and incur penalties or delays, all of which raise the cost of making changes.

• Correct answer: UBA (A)

• Why: UBA (User Behavior Analytics) analyzes user activity, builds baselines of normal access patterns, and flags deviations (e.g., accessing sensitive projects not related to the user’s role). This insider-threat detection is exactly what the scenario requires.

• Why not the others:

• Azure Resource Manager templates: Use ARM templates to define the VM infrastructure and baseline configuration as code. This ensures all Windows Server 2016 VMs are created with a uniform setup, minimizing manual configuration.

• PowerShell Desired State Configuration (DSC) extension for Windows: DSC enforces a defined state across all servers and can automatically remediate drift. This keeps the VMs in the desired configuration with minimal ongoing admin effort.

• A? ??? Aurora Replicas? ?? ??? ???? ?? ???, ?? ???? Network Load Balancer(NLB)? ??????. NLB? ?? 4 ?? ???? HTTP ??? ?? ???(Sticky sessions)? ????? ???? ????.
• ??? ?? ??????? ?? ?? ???? ??? ???? ?? ????? ????? ?? ?? ???(?? ?/??? ??)? ?????. ? ??? ALB?? ?? ????, NLB?? ???? ?????.
• ??? ??? ??? ??? ???? ?? ???? ???? HTTP ???? ??? ALB? ???? ???. A? ? ??? ??????.

• IPv6 address types you’ll typically see:

• Unique Local Addresses (ULAs)

• If an address begins with fdXX:… or fc00:…, place it under “Unique Local Address” (ULA).
• If it begins with 2000::/3, place it under “Global Unicast.”
• If it begins with fe80::, place it under “Link-local.”
• If it begins with ff00::, place it under “Multicast.”

• In Azure, the typical cost approach for pay-as-you-go VMs is an Operational Expenditure (OPEX) model. You’re billed for actual usage each month.
• The term “elastic expenditure model” isn’t a standard Azure cost category. Elasticity describes scaling capacity, not the billing category itself.
• So recommending the elastic expenditure model is not correct for this goal.

• The solution does not meet the goal. Answer: No (B).

• Pay-as-you-go aligns with OPEX because costs vary with usage.
• Elasticity is about scaling resources, which affects performance and capacity, not the fundamental cost model.

• A. Implement retries with exponential backoff

• C. Reduce the frequency and/or size of requests

• B. Use PutRecord instead of PutRecords — PutRecord sends one record per call and does not remove the underlying throughput limitation. It may increase request overhead.
• D. Use Amazon SNS instead — SNS is not a direct fix for Kinesis shard throttling and changes the required streaming architecture.
• E. Reduce KCL consumers — KCL consumers read from Kinesis; they do not solve producer-side PutRecords throttling.

• Port 515: LPD/LPR line-printer service
• Port 631: IPP — Internet Printing Protocol
• Port 9100: JetDirect/RAW printing, commonly used by network printers

• Linux machine: Linux could run these services, but the three printer-specific ports strongly indicate a printer.
• Router: Routers may use Telnet and HTTP, but normally would not expose ports 515, 631, and 9100 together.
• Windows machine: Windows can share printers, but this particular service combination is more characteristic of a network printer’s embedded operating system.

• Correct answer: C) After installing ES on the search head(s) and running the distributed configuration management tool.

• ES requires the Splunk_TA_ForIndexes.spl add-on on indexers to apply index-time configurations. It should be deployed via the distributed configuration management (DCM) flow after ES is installed on the search heads, so the indexers receive the proper configuration in a controlled, versioned bundle.

• A) Deploying when adding apps to the deployment server isn’t the ES-specific order; it bypasses the ES-instantiated workflow.
• B) Installing Splunk_TA_ForIndexes.spl first isn’t the recommended order; ES needs to be installed on the search heads first.
• D) It isn’t limited to indexer cluster sites or cluster master commands; the standard flow uses DCM to push the TA to indexers in general.

• SageMaker endpoint: Not required because the model is being used through Amazon Bedrock.
• SageMaker Model Registry: Used for managing SageMaker models, not for making a Bedrock custom model available.
• Grant access in Amazon Bedrock: IAM permissions may still be needed, but granting access alone does not provide the required inference capacity.