Amazon AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Exam Prep
AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 (Page 10 )

• You want a single source of truth for partner CIDRs that automatically propagates to all accounts.
• Security groups can reference a prefix list, and AWS RAM can share a prefix list across accounts in the same region.

• A (DynamoDB + Lambda per account): not centralized; requires cross-account automation and ongoing maintenance.
• B (Prefix list with Lambda in each account): still relies on per-account automation; extra steps to keep SGs in sync.
• C (Prefix list shared via AWS RAM; SGs reference the prefix list): central, scalable solution. Update the central prefix list; the changes automatically apply to all accounts’ security groups that reference it.
• D (S3 + Lambda): similar maintenance burden to A; not as efficient or automatic.

• Forward secrecy means the session keys are generated using ephemeral keys (e.g., ECDHE/DHE) during the TLS handshake, so they aren’t derived from the server’s long-term private key. This protects past sessions if the private key is compromised later.
• Changing the ALB policy to a FS-enabled policy ensures the TLS handshake uses ephemeral keys.

• A: Simply requiring TLS 1.2 does not guarantee forward secrecy, as TLS 1.2 can use non-ephemeral (RSA) key exchanges depending on the cipher suite.
• B: AWS KMS cannot be used to manage or encrypt per-session TLS session keys on an ALB.
• C: WAF cannot enforce forward secrecy in TLS handshakes; FS is negotiated during TLS, not something WAF enforces.

• In the ALB/or listener settings, choose a security policy that supports forward secrecy (FS-enabled cipher suites, e.g., ECDHE-based suites).
• If your environment supports TLS 1.3, that inherently provides FS as well.

• When the MVP will be defined — the MVP should already be understood sufficiently when assessing the business case.
• What the MVP is — useful information, but not the key requirement tested here.
• That the MVP is the same as project viability — incorrect. The MVP helps test viability; it is not identical to viability itself.

• A: Not expanding would increase its dependence.
• B: More business from the same corporation would make dependence worse.
• D: Passing work to other minority businesses does not solve its own dependence.
• E: The passage does not suggest that it can force or influence the corporation to give work to others.

• Accept: Acknowledging the risk without taking additional action.
• Transfer: Moving the risk’s financial impact to a third party, such as an insurer.
• Mitigate: Reducing the likelihood or impact through controls, such as patching or employee training.
• Avoid: Eliminating the activity that creates the risk.

1. insert con; ? 1
2. Database.setSavepoint(); ? 2
3. update con; ? 3
4. Database.rollback(sp_admin); ? 4

• Microsoft Foundry is an enterprise platform for developers, data scientists, and IT teams.
• It supports the full AI application lifecycle: selecting models, connecting enterprise data, developing, evaluating, deploying, monitoring, and scaling solutions.
• It can include visual tools and low-code experiences, but it is not primarily designed to enable business users to build complete generative AI solutions independently.

• B: You still need to select and configure an appropriate model.
• C: Business users may participate through visual tools, but they are not the primary target audience.
• D: Foundry includes low-code tools, but it is not fundamentally a low-code-only platform.

• Which host first communicated with the suspected malicious source
• Whether that host initiated suspicious traffic or merely received it
• Which other hosts show evidence of infection, such as connections from the originating host
• Which hosts have no related suspicious activity and are therefore clean

• An outbound connection to a suspicious external address
• A downloaded or executed malicious file
• Later lateral connections from that host to other internal systems
• Firewall logs showing the direction and timing of the traffic

1. Search & Intelligence in the Microsoft 365 admin center — No

1. Audit in the Microsoft Defender portal — Yes

1. Audit in the Microsoft Purview portal — Yes

• Create the field in the CRM on the relevant person records—typically Lead and Contact in Salesforce.
• Give the Marketo Sync User read/write access to the field.

apex 
for (Account updatedAccount : Trigger.new) { 
    AccountTriggerHelper.notinyxternalSystem(updatedAccount.Id); 
}

• Too many callouts: The callout occurs asynchronously in the future method, and each future transaction can perform its permitted callouts.
• Too many SOQL queries: The SOQL query is inside the future execution, not repeatedly in the trigger transaction.
• Callout from triggers not supported: Direct callouts from triggers are prohibited, but the trigger delegates the callout to asynchronous Apex, which is the correct pattern.

• Three DHCP scopes: Each VLAN has its own IPv4 subnet. DHCP scopes are subnet-specific, so create one scope for:

• Two DHCP relays: DHCP client discovery begins as a broadcast, and broadcasts do not cross routers or VLAN boundaries. Therefore, configure a DHCP relay on the router or Layer 3 switch interface for each client VLAN.

• IaaS: você gerencia a VM e o sistema operacional.
• PaaS: o Azure gerencia a infraestrutura; você se concentra no aplicativo.

• PC A: 192.168.1.10/24
• PC B: 192.168.2.10/24

• Both PCs have a correct default gateway
• A router or Layer 3 switch connects the subnets
• Routing and firewall rules allow the traffic

• Access List: controls whether a client is allowed or denied.
• Connect List: controls which wireless networks/APs a station may connect to.

• sn_si_admin is an SIR administrator role.
• The prefix helps prevent naming conflicts between applications.
• It does not refer to a “Secure Identity token” or an instance security check.

• Reconnaissance: Gathering information about the target.
• Weaponization: Creating or combining a malicious payload with a delivery method.
• Delivery: Sending the payload, such as through phishing.
• Exploitation: Triggering a vulnerability or weakness to gain execution or access.

• Training data for potential bias before model training
• Trained models for bias in predictions
• Model features to help explain how they influence predictions

• A: RAG workflows are typically built using services such as Amazon Bedrock, knowledge bases, and data sources.
• B: Monitoring model quality in production is primarily associated with SageMaker Model Monitor.
• C: Documenting model details is handled by capabilities such as SageMaker Model Cards.

• transform() — modifies every element in an array
• filter() — keeps elements matching a condition
• exists() — checks whether any element matches
• aggregate() — reduces array elements to one result

sql 
SELECT transform(scores, x -> x * 2) 
FROM student_scores;

• A is incorrect because higher-order functions are mainly useful for nested or complex data.
• B is incorrect because they do not convert logic into Python.
• D is incorrect because their purpose is not to fix slow built-in functions, but to process arrays or maps with custom logic.

1. The specific table — for example, incident
2. The parent table — for example, task
3. The wildcard table — *, which applies broadly

• Lead investigator: Coordinates the investigation and directs the response.
• Information security representative: Provides security expertise and helps assess the incident.
• Technical representative: Preserves system evidence, takes forensic backups, and supports technical analysis.
• Legal representative: Advises on legal, regulatory, privacy, and evidence-handling requirements.

• Structure requirements documents
• Draft user stories and acceptance criteria
• Create templates for functional and nonfunctional requirements
• Turn natural-language descriptions into organized documentation or implementation examples

• A: “Automatically generating detailed requirements documents” overstates Copilot’s role; it assists but does not independently determine complete requirements.
• C: /help provides guidance about Copilot features, not reliable requirements-conflict detection.
• D: Stakeholder communication and meetings remain human responsibilities.

• B. Versioned configuration files — Infrastructure is defined in machine-readable files and tracked in version control, allowing repeatable provisioning and change history.
• D. Docker files — Assuming “Doctor files” is a typo for Dockerfiles, a Dockerfile declaratively defines how to build a container image and is commonly considered infrastructure/configuration as code.

• A. Cloned virtual machine images — These are prebuilt infrastructure artifacts, but cloning an image is not itself a code-based infrastructure definition.
• C. Change management database records — A CMDB records information about infrastructure; it does not define or provision that infrastructure.

• D — Managers focus on keeping costs low in the short term to maximise profits.

• E — Managers are given incentives to meet or undercut budgets.

• F — Managers delegate responsibility simply to reduce their workload.

• Orders contains order-level information, such as the order date.
• Order Line Items contains the products, quantities, and line amounts associated with each order.
• Merging them on the order key, such as OrderID, places the order date alongside each line item. This allows you to calculate total order value and analyze it over time.
• Product attributes can remain in the Products table and be related to the resulting line-item table through ProductID.

• Merging line items with products addresses product attributes but does not first provide the order-level date and value needed for time analysis.
• DAX calculated columns or lists add unnecessary model complexity.
• Calculating order counts is not the first requirement and does not combine the required order and line-item data.

• C — Custom buttons display at the top and bottom of a page: Correct. In Salesforce Classic, buttons can appear in the page’s button areas, including the top and bottom of record pages.
• D — Custom buttons are available for Person Accounts: Correct. Person Accounts use the Account object, so Account custom buttons can be available on Person Account layouts.
• E — Custom buttons can reference an external app: Correct. A URL custom button can launch or navigate to an external application or website.

• A: JavaScript custom buttons are a Salesforce Classic feature and are not supported in Lightning Experience. They do not enhance Lightning Experience.
• B: The User object does not generally support custom buttons in the same way standard business objects do.

1. The original app version exists.
2. You create and publish a new version, so there are now two versions.
3. When you restore the previous version, Power Apps does not delete or overwrite the newer version. Instead, it creates another version based on the restored one.

• Original version
• Newly created and published version
• New version created by the restore operation

• BCP (Business Continuity Plan): è più ampio e mira a mantenere le funzioni essenziali dell’organizzazione durante un’interruzione. Il DRP è una componente più specifica del BCP.
• Communication plan: stabilisce come comunicare con dipendenti, cittadini e altre parti interessate, ma non ripristina i sistemi.
• IRP (Incident Response Plan): gestisce la risposta iniziale a un incidente di sicurezza, come un attacco informatico, non principalmente il recupero da un disastro fisico.

• 50% memory utilization baseline: The environment can be provisioned with excess capacity, leaving room for growth and workload spikes.
• Storage scalability: Cloud storage can generally be expanded as needed without redesigning the physical platform.
• Single circuit failure resilience: A properly designed IaaS provider uses redundant power circuits and infrastructure, so failure of one circuit should not take the platform offline.

• A — Dual PDUs: Helps with power redundancy but does not provide storage scalability.
• C — Network load balancing: Provides network-path resilience, not memory or storage scalability, and does not address a power-circuit failure.
• D — Multiple NAS devices: May improve storage capacity, but does not inherently provide power resilience or the required compute-capacity baseline.

• Customers may boycott V’s products.
• Supermarket customers may stop buying from V.
• Investors may view V as having higher legal, ethical and reputational risk.
• V could face fines, lawsuits, contract losses and higher costs.
• Expected future profits may fall.

• The CSV contains the external users’ email addresses.
• The bulk invitation feature supports inviting many guest users in one operation.
• Each invited user becomes a guest account in contoso.com.

• Link-local — FE80::/10; valid only on the local link/subnet and not routed by routers.
• Multicast — FF00::/8; identifies a group of interfaces rather than a private address range.
• Global unicast — 2000::/3; publicly routable IPv6 addressing.

text 
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.10 
 encapsulation dot1Q 3

• .10 is the router’s local subinterface number.
• dot1Q 3 identifies the 802.1Q VLAN tag carried on the trunk.

text 
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.3 
 encapsulation dot1Q 3

text 
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.2 
 encapsulation dot1Q 2

• Wireshark captures packets and allows you to examine their contents, potentially revealing usernames and passwords sent without encryption.
• Netcat creates network connections and can send or receive data, but it is not primarily a packet-analysis tool.
• Nessus scans for known vulnerabilities and configuration issues; it generally would not prove that credentials are visible in transit.
• Nmap performs network discovery and port/service scanning, not detailed packet-content inspection.

• Disabling a compromised account
• Blocking a malicious IP address
• Isolating an endpoint
• Creating or escalating an incident ticket

• Virus signatures: Primarily associated with antivirus or endpoint protection.
• Security agent deployment: Usually handled by endpoint-management or security-agent platforms.
• Vulnerability scanning: Typically performed by vulnerability-management tools.

Why this is correct

• Each user authenticates with their own Google account.
• Google manages the user’s SSH key association.
• IAM controls who can access instances.
• Access can be audited by user identity, so security can determine who accessed a VM.
• Granting the role to a Google group avoids managing permissions individually.

Why the others don’t apply

• A: A shared private key is difficult to distribute securely and cannot reliably identify which employee used it.
• B: Manually collecting and deploying keys on every instance is operationally inefficient and complicates auditing.
• D: A project-wide shared key has the same identity and key-management problems as option A. It also does not provide per-user accountability.

1. x = -100
2. -100 < x < 100
3. 100 = x < 1000
4. x = 1000

• -500 ? class 1
• 0 ? class 2
• 100 ? class 3
• 1000 ? class 4

• Internal hostnames and subdomains
• Network structure and naming conventions
• Servers and services
• Relationships between systems

• Determining ISP-assigned address space: Usually involves external registration and DNS information, not internal host discovery.
• Bypassing DNS sinkholing: Would require evidence that malicious DNS requests avoided redirection.
• Initial access: DNS queries alone do not show that the attacker gained access.
• Exfiltrating data: DNS tunneling can do this, but the snippet would typically show encoded or unusually long DNS queries.

• Maintain head office control: Transfer pricing generally supports decentralisation rather than direct head-office control.
• Establish centralised decision making: This conflicts with divisional autonomy.
• Develop a top-down culture: Transfer pricing is intended to support empowered divisions and goal congruence, not impose purely top-down management.

• Key-based authentication: Provides an endpoint secured with API keys.
• Real-time REST access: Supports online inference through an HTTP/REST endpoint.
• No VM vCPU quota consumption: Microsoft hosts and manages the underlying infrastructure, so your subscription’s VM quota isn’t used.

• Batch: Intended for asynchronous, large-volume processing rather than real-time requests.
• Self-hosted container: You manage the infrastructure and typically need compute resources and quota.
• Standard: This is not the clearest deployment type for the stated requirements; the specific Foundry option is serverless API.

• Deterministic approve/reject results
• Strict adherence to predefined rules
• Consistent, reproducible outcomes
• Auditability and regulatory compliance

• You can configure different pre-shared keys for different device groups.
• All cameras could use one key.
• All scanners could use another key.
• Each key can be associated with an appropriate role or access policy.

• Access controls — ensuring only authorized users can access it.
• Encryption — protecting the data if it is intercepted or exposed.

• D — Value analysis: Correct. It examines an existing product to identify ways of reducing its cost while still providing the required functions, quality and reliability.
• E — Kaizen costing: Correct. It involves making continuous, small improvements and cost reductions while the product is already in production.

• Functional analysis: It is not limited to minimizing the cost of the originally defined functions. It examines what functions are required and how they can be provided at the lowest overall cost.
• Value engineering: Usually applies to the design and development of a new product, rather than being a fundamental redesign of existing organisational processes. That description is closer to business process re-engineering.
• Target costing: The target cost is generally established during the product development stage, before production begins. It is not continuously reset while the product is in production.

• Custom domains: Supported by Basic and higher tiers.
• Dedicated compute: Basic and Standard use dedicated virtual machine instances; Free and Shared use shared infrastructure.
• Load balancing between instances: Standard provides scaling across multiple instances with load balancing.
• Storage: Standard provides more storage than Basic.
• Cost: Standard is the least expensive option that satisfies all the stated requirements.

• Free/Shared: Use shared compute and have limited features; they don’t meet the dedicated-compute requirement.
• Basic: Provides dedicated compute and custom domains, but does not provide the required Standard-level multi-instance capabilities in the exam’s feature comparison.

• Accept terms of use
• Enter a temporary code or credentials
• Provide basic registration information

• Enterprise authentication — Authenticates organizational users, often with centralized identity services; it is not specifically designed for temporary guest access.
• Ad hoc network — A temporary device-to-device network, not an authentication process.
• WPA3 — A wireless security standard. It protects Wi-Fi access but does not provide the web-based temporary access workflow described here.

• SQL injection
• Cross-site scripting (XSS)
• Malicious or malformed web requests
• Some application-layer abuse

• Layer 4 firewall: Filters based mainly on IP addresses, ports, and connections; it lacks detailed web-request inspection.
• NGFW: Provides broader network security, but a WAF is more specialized for protecting web applications.
• UTM: Combines multiple security functions, but it is not necessarily optimized for web-application protection.

• Lower order numbers appear first.
• For example, a variable with order 100 appears before one with order 200.
• The Sequence field is not the control used for catalog variable display order.
• The Default Value sets a value, not placement.
• The Choice field defines selectable options, not the variable’s position.

• Crash cart: Provides local physical access, not remote access.
• Jump box: A secured intermediary used to reach devices over the normal network; it may be inaccessible if the appliance has not booted.
• Secure Shell (SSH): Requires the device’s operating system and network services to be running properly.

• Architects design overall Splunk infrastructure and data strategy.
• Administrators manage configuration, access, and system operations.
• Knowledge Managers create and maintain knowledge objects such as data models, field extractions, and event types. They may support pivots, but they are not the primary users of them.