APICS CTSC Exam Prep
Certified in Transformation for Supply Chain (Page 6 )

• The team should inspect its way of working during retrospectives.
• The team can identify root causes of delays and agree on process improvements.
• The leader facilitates the removal of impediments and provides support, but does not impose solutions.

• A: An impediment log can help track issues, but documentation alone does not resolve them.
• B: Directing the team toward solutions conflicts with agile empowerment and self-management.
• C: Adding impediments to the product backlog may incorrectly treat team problems as product features and delay resolution.

• Two-part tariff pricing: $10 per unit
• Dual pricing: $20 per unit

Two-part tariff pricing

Dual pricing

• Division X, the seller, is credited with the market price: \(\$20\)
• Division Y, the buyer, is charged the marginal cost: \(\$10\)

• Which host first communicated with the suspected malicious source
• Whether that host initiated suspicious traffic or merely received it
• Which other hosts show evidence of infection, such as connections from the originating host
• Which hosts have no related suspicious activity and are therefore clean

• An outbound connection to a suspicious external address
• A downloaded or executed malicious file
• Later lateral connections from that host to other internal systems
• Firewall logs showing the direction and timing of the traffic

• A single summarized value, such as total annual sales
• Progress toward a defined target or goal
• Whether performance is below, near, or above the target

• Table: Displays detailed records or summarized rows, but not goal progress visually.
• Stacked Bar: Compares multiple categories and their parts.
• Donut: Shows how a total is divided among categories, not progress toward a target.

• A. Adjust resolution: Incorrect because an incompatible resolution usually causes no display, distortion, or an unsupported-mode message—not intermittent flickering.
• B. Swap the HDMI cable: Correct. Replacing the common, easily tested component is the appropriate troubleshooting step.
• C. Replace the projector: Incorrect because the issue also occurs with a monitor.
• D. Configure refresh rate: A mismatched refresh rate can cause visual problems, but the repeated flicker across displays points more strongly to the cable.

• A — Use a custom controller: An Apex class can contain the page’s logic.
• C — Use a standard controller with extensions: The standard controller provides basic CRUD behavior, while an extension adds custom logic.
• E — Use a standard controller: Useful when the page works mainly with one Salesforce object and needs standard functionality.

• A page with no controller for static or controller-free content.
• A custom controller with extensions; extensions are not limited only to standard controllers.

1. Write a structured log entry to CloudWatch Logs containing:

1. Create a CloudWatch Logs metric filter that:

text 
ApiRequests 
Operation=GetOrders 
ResponseCode=500 
Version=2.4.0

• B is incorrect: CloudWatch Logs Insights queries analyze logs but do not directly publish metrics in this manner.
• C is incorrect: ALB access logs do not contain arbitrary Lambda response metadata as custom fields.
• D is incorrect: X-Ray traces and insights are not the appropriate mechanism for creating these custom, dimensioned application metrics.

Correct sequence

1. Merge Sales_Region with Sales_Manager using an inner join

1. Merge Region_Manager with Manager using an inner join

1. Merge Sales_Region and Region_Manager using a right join as a new query

• A — Tables
• B — Named file formats
• C — Schemas
• E — Databases

Why these are correct

• Tables: Can be cloned using CREATE TABLE ... CLONE. The clone initially uses zero-copy cloning, so storage is shared until changes are made.
• Named file formats: Can be cloned as database objects, preserving the file-format definition.
• Schemas: A schema and its eligible objects can be cloned.
• Databases: A database and its eligible schemas and objects can be cloned.

Why the others are incorrect

• Shares: A share is an account-level data-sharing object, not a normal cloneable database object.
• Users: Users are security principals and cannot be cloned with CLONE.

• Annual interest payments net of tax relief (A): future cash outflows for the issuer.
• Redemption value (B): the final cash outflow when the bond is redeemed.
• Market value now (C): the cash proceeds received now, acting as the initial cash flow in the IRR calculation.

• When the MVP will be defined — the MVP should already be understood sufficiently when assessing the business case.
• What the MVP is — useful information, but not the key requirement tested here.
• That the MVP is the same as project viability — incorrect. The MVP helps test viability; it is not identical to viability itself.

• Due diligence: Researching and evaluating a third party before entering or continuing a business relationship.
• Internal audit: Evaluates controls within the organization itself.
• Penetration testing: Actively tests systems for exploitable vulnerabilities.
• Attestation: A formal statement or report—such as a SOC 2 report—provided by an independent party about an organization’s controls.

• Customize Opportunity Contact Role
• Add the Opportunity Contact Role related list to the Opportunity page layout

• The connected switch
• The switch’s port/interface
• Device and port descriptions
• Sometimes VLAN or management information

• IKE: Establishes security associations for IPsec VPNs.
• VLAN: Defines logical network segmentation; it does not identify a physical switch port.
• netstat: Displays local network connections and statistics, not the upstream switch and port.

• Customers may boycott V’s products.
• Supermarket customers may stop buying from V.
• Investors may view V as having higher legal, ethical and reputational risk.
• V could face fines, lawsuits, contract losses and higher costs.
• Expected future profits may fall.

• Escape to host: A virtualization attack where code escapes a guest VM and accesses the host system. Nothing in the scenario mentions virtualization.
• Browser extension: Can redirect or manipulate web-browser traffic, but not normally database-server traffic.
• Valid accounts: Describes using stolen or compromised credentials, not redirecting network traffic.
• Process injection: Injecting malicious code into a legitimate database or networking process could allow an attacker to alter how that process handles outgoing traffic.

• Menerjemahkan soal ke bahasa Indonesia.
• Menyebutkan jawaban yang benar.
• Menjelaskan alasan jawaban tersebut.
• Memberi tahu jika kunci jawaban yang tersedia tampaknya keliru.
• Menjelaskan istilah teknis penting dalam soal.

• Red team: Simulates attackers and tests exploitability.
• Blue team: Defends, monitors, detects, and responds to attacks.
• Purple team: Combines red- and blue-team activities to improve cooperation and defenses.
• White team: Manages and oversees the rules, scope, and authorization of the exercise.

• Self-signed certificate: Causes a browser security warning, not incorrect name resolution.
• Nameserver record: A DNS problem would typically affect multiple users, not just one workstation.
• IP helper: Relays services such as DHCP across network segments; it does not resolve website names.

• Sales process: Controls which Opportunity Stage values are available.
• Record type: Associates the appropriate sales process with a business scenario and controls available picklist values.
• Page layout: Controls which fields are displayed and whether they are required or read-only.

• Energy Market Team 1 ? Record Type 1, Sales Process 1, Page Layout 1
• Energy Market Team 2 ? Record Type 2, Sales Process 2, Page Layout 2
• Services/Installation Team ? Record Type 3, Sales Process 3, Page Layout 3

• The message came from the claimed sender (authentication)
• The message was not altered (integrity)
• The sender cannot easily deny sending it (non-repudiation)

• Attackers can send unsigned phishing emails.
• Attackers may compromise a legitimate account and send signed malicious emails.
• Users may still be tricked by a validly signed message.

• A class/teacher fact should contain one row per Class ID. It can support the count of classes and contain attributes such as Teacher First Name and Period Number.
• An attendance fact should contain one row per attendance event, such as Class ID + student + date. It supports attendance counts by day and monthly averages.

• Teacher First Name ? Teacher fact
• Period Number ? Attendance fact

• Scanning is not essential during a power outage.
• A scanner can consume UPS battery power without helping the user save cloud documents or shut down safely.
• The UPS should be reserved for the computer, monitor, and necessary network equipment.
• The surge protector helps protect the scanner from voltage spikes, but it will not keep it running during an outage.

1. x = -100
2. -100 < x < 100
3. 100 = x < 1000
4. x = 1000

• -500 ? class 1
• 0 ? class 2
• 100 ? class 3
• 1000 ? class 4

• Share of overall contribution: part of the organization’s total contribution is allocated to the supplying division.
• Dual pricing: the supplying division may record a higher transfer price while the receiving division records a lower price, with central accounts absorbing the difference.
• A centrally imposed price range: this may allow the transfer price to be set above variable cost, helping the supplying division recover fixed costs.

• AWS Network Firewall can inspect and block traffic across a VPC when traffic is routed through the firewall. A Drop action rule can deny traffic from the suspicious source IP.
• GuardDuty findings are sent to Security Hub.
• A Lambda function can be invoked when Security Hub receives a new GuardDuty finding, extract the source IP, and update the Network Firewall policy with a blocking rule.

• GuardDuty threat lists: Used to identify or increase the severity of findings; they do not directly block VPC traffic.
• AWS WAF: Protects supported web applications, such as CloudFront or Application Load Balancers. It does not provide general VPC-wide traffic blocking.
• GuardDuty suppression rules: Suppress or hide findings. They do not block the suspicious traffic.

• Relationship cardinality:

• Filter direction:

• Active versus inactive relationships: only active relationships automatically propagate filters.
• Blank or unmatched values: a fact-table value without a matching dimension row can create the model’s blank/unknown member.
• Uniqueness: the “one” side must contain unique values; duplicate keys generally belong on the “many” side.

• Constrained VMs: VMs whose workloads are experiencing resource pressure, such as insufficient CPU or memory. They may need additional resources or optimization.
• Overprovisioned VMs: VMs allocated more CPU, memory, or storage than their workloads require. Their resources may be reclaimed or reduced.

• Underprovisioned VMs: This is not the predefined view identified for this report question.
• Zombie VMs: These are typically inactive or unused VMs and are useful for cleanup, but they are not the two views specifically intended here to identify inefficient resource allocation.

• Behavioral and anomaly detection
• Threat intelligence integration
• User and entity behavior analytics
• Automated response actions, often through SOAR integration

• Virus signatures: Associated primarily with antivirus or endpoint protection.
• Security agent deployment: Usually an endpoint-management or EDR function.
• Vulnerability scanning: Typically performed by vulnerability-management tools, though a SIEM may integrate their results.

• Endpoint Manager: manages hosts and sensor-related settings.
• Falcon Investigator: supports investigation and analysis, but does not necessarily grant RTR access.
• Remediation Manager: handles remediation-related actions rather than interactive host access.

• IDS attack signatures: Primarily detects suspicious network activity; it is not the best control for scanning uploaded documents.
• Load balancer: Distributes traffic and can improve availability, but does not inspect files for malware.
• WAF: Helps block web attacks such as command injection and SQL injection, but it is not primarily a malware-scanning solution.

• Existing measures
• Relationships
• Calculated columns
• Tables and fields
• Existing transformations in the model

• SharePoint folder: Reconnects to the source files. You would likely need to recreate the model and measures.
• Power BI dataflows: Primarily provide reusable data preparation and storage, but they do not automatically provide the existing semantic model and measures.
• Excel workbook: Connects directly to the source file and would also require rebuilding the model and measures.

• Layer 1: Check cables, power, and link lights.
• Layer 2: Check switching, VLANs, and MAC learning.
• Layer 3: Check IP addressing, routing, and gateways.
• Higher layers: Check services, applications, and user settings.

• Create a plan of action: Decide how to implement the fix.
• Implement the solution: Apply the selected fix.
• Verify functionality: Confirm the problem is resolved and systems work normally.

• Floating IP must be enabled on the load-balancing rule.
• Session persistence should normally remain None.
• The health probe determines which replica should receive traffic.
• Client-IP persistence is unnecessary and can cause connections from the same client to remain associated with a backend replica longer than intended.

• Q9 — Client IP session persistence: No
• Q10 — Floating IP: Yes

• Existing Eventhouse data: remains available only in the KQL database.
• Data ingested after enabling the feature: is copied to OneLake and can be accessed through OneLake file explorer.
• New databases: are irrelevant; the setting applies to the selected KQL database.

• A. IDS attack signatures: An IDS mainly detects suspicious network traffic. It is not the best control for scanning uploaded documents.
• C. Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers and can improve availability, but does not specifically detect malware.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications from attacks such as SQL injection and command injection. It may inspect web requests, but malware scanning of PDF files is not its primary function.

• Asynchronous inference is designed for applications that submit individual inference requests, place them in a queue, and retrieve results later. It is useful when requests may take a long time or when traffic is intermittent.
• Batch transform is designed specifically to run inference over an entire large dataset stored in Amazon S3 and produce an output dataset.

• Large dataset/offline processing ? Batch transform
• Large or slow individual requests processed later ? Asynchronous inference

• Set credit quotas for an account or individual virtual warehouses.
• Define monitoring intervals.
• Trigger actions when usage reaches thresholds, such as sending notifications or suspending a warehouse.
• Help control unexpected warehouse spending.

• Account Usage: Provides historical usage and billing data; it does not enforce credit limits.
• Warehouse Limit Parameter: Not the Snowflake object used for account-wide credit controls.
• Credit Consumption Tracker: Not a standard Snowflake object.

• A. IDS attack signatures: Detects suspicious network activity, but is not primarily designed to scan uploaded files for malware.
• C. Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers and improves availability; it does not inspect files for threats.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications from attacks such as SQL injection and command injection, but its primary role is not malware scanning of uploaded documents.

1. Version 1.0.0.0 — original published version
2. Version 2.0.0.0 — newly created and published version
3. Version 3.0.0.0 — new version created when version 1 is restored

• Information sources: Collect security-related data, such as network packets, system logs, audit records, or application events.
• Analysis: Examines the collected data to identify suspicious activity, attacks, or policy violations.
• Response: Takes or recommends action, such as generating alerts, logging the event, or supporting a protective response.

• IaaS: você gerencia a VM e o sistema operacional.
• PaaS: o Azure gerencia a infraestrutura; você se concentra no aplicativo.

• Structure requirements documents
• Draft user stories and acceptance criteria
• Create templates for functional and nonfunctional requirements
• Turn natural-language descriptions into organized documentation or implementation examples

• A: “Automatically generating detailed requirements documents” overstates Copilot’s role; it assists but does not independently determine complete requirements.
• C: /help provides guidance about Copilot features, not reliable requirements-conflict detection.
• D: Stakeholder communication and meetings remain human responsibilities.

• A — Technical review by business owner: A business owner may approve the business impact, but a technical review is normally performed by technical personnel.
• C — Cost-benefit analysis after implementation: Cost-benefit analysis should occur before implementation to support the approval decision.
• D — Business continuity testing: This can be appropriate for major changes, but it is primarily part of business continuity and disaster recovery planning—not a universal change-management activity.

• Actions that call external APIs
• Subflows
• Connection and credential aliases
• Supporting integration logic

• Action — A reusable operation within a flow, such as “Create a record” or “Send email.”
• Connection — Defines how ServiceNow authenticates and communicates with an external system.
• Integration step — A general flow step, not the name for the packaged integration.

1. It examines the source MAC address and learns it on the incoming port.
2. It examines the destination MAC address.
3. If the destination MAC is already in the MAC/CAM table, it forwards the frame only through the associated port.
4. If the destination MAC is unknown, it performs unknown-unicast flooding:

• A is incorrect: Flow Debugger is for debugging Salesforce Flows, not Trust Layer masking.
• B is incomplete/misleading: Requesting audit data may be part of reviewing the results, but collection and storage must first be enabled.
• C is correct: It describes the initial validation step.