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BCS CTFL4 Exam
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level 4.0 (Page 3 )

Updated On: 1-Feb-2026
Page 3 of 31
PDF with 148 Questions

Which of the following about typical information found within a test plan is FALSE?

  1. The need to temporarily have additional test personnel available for specific test phases and/or test activities
  2. The conditions that must be met in order for the test execution activities to be considered completed.
  3. The list of the product risks which have not been fully mitigated at the end of test execution.
  4. The conditions that must be met for part of all the planned activities to be suspended and resumed.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

A typical test plan includes various elements, such as resource requirements, test completion criteria, and suspension/resumption criteria. However, the list of product risks that have not been fully mitigated is generally not included in the test plan but rather in the risk management documentation.
The test plan focuses on planning and executing tests, including resource allocation and defining criteria for test suspension and resumption.
While risk management is crucial, unmitigated risks are typically documented in risk logs or separate risk management plans.


Reference:

ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Chapter 5.1.1, Test Planning .



Which of the following statements about the testing quadrants is TRUE?

  1. The higher the number of the testing quadrant, the more important the tests associated with this quadrant are
  2. Automated acceptance tests produced during BDD and ATDD are classified in quadrant 02.
  3. Exploratory tests are classified in quadrant Q3, and they are usually included in a continuous integration process.
  4. Automated unit tests produced during TDD are classified in quadrant Q4 as they are technology facing.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The correct statement is B. According to the ISTQB CTFL syllabus, the testing quadrants help to categorize tests based on their purpose and whether they are technology-facing or business-facing, and whether they support the team or critique the product. Quadrant Q2 includes tests that are business-facing and support the team, such as automated acceptance tests produced during Behavior-Driven Development (BDD) and Acceptance Test-Driven Development (ATDD) . Quadrant Q3 includes business-facing tests that critique the product, such as exploratory testing, usability testing, and user acceptance testing. These tests are typically manual and focus on evaluating the product from a user perspective, rather than being part of a continuous integration process .
Quadrant Q4 includes technology-facing tests that critique the product, such as performance tests, security tests, and other non-functional tests, which can be automated but are not related to unit tests produced during TDD .



A requirement specifies that a certain identifier (ID) must be between 5 and 10 characters long, must contain only alphanumenc characters, and its first character must be a letter As a tester, you want to apply one-dimensional equivalence partitioning to test this ID. This means that you have to apply equivalence partitioning individually: to the length of the ID, the type of characters contained within the ID, and the type of the first character of the ID. What is the number of partitions to cover?

  1. 7.
  2. 6.
  3. 5.
  4. 3.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

To apply one-dimensional equivalence partitioning to the ID requirement, we need to consider each condition individually:
Length of the ID: Valid partitions (5-10 characters), Invalid partitions (less than 5, more than 10) = 3 partitions.
Type of characters: Valid partitions (alphanumeric), Invalid partitions (non-alphanumeric) = 2 partitions.
First character: Valid partitions (letter), Invalid partitions (non-letter) = 2 partitions. Adding these partitions, we get a total of 3 (length) + 2 (character type) + 2 (first character) = 7 partitions. Thus, the correct answer is A .



Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects [1]. It may not be possible to generate the expected workloads to run performance tests, due to the poor hardware equipment of the machines (load injectors) that should generate these workloads. [ii]. A user's session on a web application is not invalidated after a certain period of inactivity (configured by the system administrator) of the user,
[iii]. The test team will not have an adequate requirements specification (since many requirements will still be missing) by the time test design and analysis activities should begin according to the test plan.
[IV]. Following a failure, the system is unable to continue to maintain its pre-failure operation and some data becomes corrupted.
Which of the following statements is TRUE?

  1. [ii] and [IV] are product risks; [i] and [iii] are project risks
  2. [ii]and [iii] are product risks. [I] and [IV] are project risks.
  3. [i], and [iV] are product risks; [ii] and [iii] are project risks
  4. [i], [II] and [iii] are product risks, [IV] is a project risk.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

In software testing, risks are categorized into product risks and project risks. Product risks are associated with the potential of a product to fail in meeting its quality criteria. Project risks are related to potential issues that could affect the project's ability to deliver a product. [i] is a project risk because it concerns the availability and adequacy of hardware resources for performance testing.
[ii] is a product risk because it pertains to a security and functionality issue within the web application.

[iii] is a project risk because it involves the availability of necessary requirements documentation for the testing process.
[iv] is a product risk because it relates to the system's functionality and data integrity after a failure. Thus, statement A correctly classifies [ii] and [iv] as product risks and [i] and [iii] as project risks .



From a testing perspective, configuration management

  1. Allows the expected results to be compared with the actual results.
  2. Allows the tracking of all changes to versions of the testware.
  3. Includes all activities that direct and control an organisation with regard to quality
  4. Focuses on configuring static analysis tools to choose the most suitable breadth and depth of analysis.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Configuration management in the context of testing involves the systematic control of changes to the configuration items, including testware such as test scripts, test data, and test environments. It ensures that all changes are tracked and recorded, enabling the version control and management of testware .

Option A is related to test execution rather than configuration management. Option C describes quality management in a broader sense, not specifically configuration management. Option D is specific to the configuration of tools, not the overall management of testware versions.



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