CFA CFA I Exam Prep
CFA Level I Chartered Financial Analyst (Page 106 )

• File is shared externally ? Access level

• File is labeled “Internal only” ? Sensitivity label

• Architects design overall Splunk infrastructure and data strategy.
• Administrators manage configuration, access, and system operations.
• Knowledge Managers create and maintain knowledge objects such as data models, field extractions, and event types. They may support pivots, but they are not the primary users of them.

• A: It allows for branching and merging...

• C: It allows multiple engineers to work against the same code and configuration files and manage differences and conflicts.

• B: Build automation and infrastructure provisioning are handled by CI/CD and automation tools, not by version control alone.
• D: User Stories and backlogs are managed by project-management tools.
• E: Version control stores and tracks code, but it does not itself ensure that developers write effective unit tests.

• The type of change: standard, normal, or emergency
• The risk, impact, and complexity
• The change model being used

• A standard change may be pre-authorized through its change model.
• A normal change may require assessment and approval by an appropriate change authority.
• An emergency change may be authorized by an emergency change authority, often using an expedited process.

• Change authorities are not only needed for emergency changes.
• They are not assigned only when a change is deployed.
• They are not only required for normal changes.

• Code suggestions: Inline completions as you write code, such as lines, functions, or blocks.
• Chat: An interactive interface for asking questions, explaining code, generating code, and helping with debugging.

• Knowledge Base: Not listed as a standard Copilot Individual IDE feature in this context.
• Pull Request Diff Analysis: More closely associated with GitHub-based code review or pull-request features, not the core Individual IDE extension capabilities.

text 
user<TAB>action<TAB>status

text 
user|action|status

• Colons: Although colons commonly appear in log data, they are not a supported delimiter choice in the FX workflow described by this exam question.
• Spaces: Spaces are not treated as a supported delimiter for this extraction method; ordinary text often contains variable spacing.

• Error correction (ECC): Improves data reliability but does not maximize bandwidth.
• RAM voltage: Increasing voltage may affect stability or speed, but it is not the primary method for increasing module bandwidth.
• Physical module size: Refers to the capacity or form factor of the RAM, not its data-transfer bandwidth.

• 10 TB with maximum I/O performance: Use EC2 instance store. It provides very high-throughput, low-latency local storage suitable for temporary video-processing data. The application must tolerate data loss because instance store is ephemeral.
• 300 TB of highly durable media: Use Amazon S3, which is designed for highly durable object storage and can scale to this size.
• 900 TB of inactive archival media: Use S3 Glacier, which provides lower-cost storage for data that is rarely accessed.

• A: Amazon EBS offers high performance but is not the best fit for the question’s “maximum possible I/O” requirement compared with local instance store.
• B: Amazon EFS is durable and shared, but is generally more expensive and less suitable for very large archival storage.
• C: Uses EC2 instance store for performance, but incorrectly uses EFS for the 300-TB durable tier and S3 rather than Glacier for archival data.

• Load balancer: Distributes application traffic; it does not protect switch MAC tables.
• IPS: May detect some attack traffic, but it is not the primary control for switch-port MAC learning.
• NGFW: Protects at network boundaries but does not directly limit MAC addresses learned on access ports.

• The current and previous versions
• Which clauses were changed
• When each revision occurred
• Potentially, who made the changes

• Version validation: Verifies a version’s accuracy or integrity but does not primarily track revisions.
• Version changes: Not the standard name for a formal document-management process.
• Version updates: Describes updating a document, not the complete process of managing and tracking its revisions.

• User1 (user1@contoso.com) — This is an external guest in the Fabrikam tenant. Assuming the guest uses email one-time passcode authentication, Azure AD emails a passcode to user1@contoso.com.
• User2 (user2@outlook.com) — An Outlook.com address can authenticate with a Microsoft account, so Azure AD uses that account’s authentication rather than sending an email OTP. The fact that User2 has never accessed Fabrikam resources does not by itself trigger OTP.
• User3 (user3@fabrikam.com) — This is an internal Fabrikam user, so the user signs in with the organization’s normal credentials and does not receive a guest OTP.

• Create a CodeCommit repository in the secondary Region.
• Use CodeBuild to run a Git mirror operation from the primary repository to the secondary repository.
• Use EventBridge to detect relevant repository events, such as a pull request being merged.
• Invoke a Lambda function, which starts the CodeBuild project.

• B: Amazon S3 is object storage, not a Git repository that developers can use as a CodeCommit remote.
• C: CodeArtifact is intended for packages and artifacts, not source-code repository mirroring.
• D: An AWS Cloud9 environment is not an appropriate automated replication mechanism and would require manual or persistent infrastructure management.

• AWS AppSync is designed for serverless applications that need to retrieve and combine data from multiple sources.
• A pipeline resolver can invoke multiple functions or data-source resolvers, including resolvers connected to different DynamoDB tables.
• The application can receive the combined result through one GraphQL request, without requiring custom aggregation logic in the application.
• This is operationally efficient because AppSync manages the API layer and resolver execution.

• Athena Federated Query is intended primarily for analytics and ad hoc querying, not low-latency application data retrieval.
• Querying DynamoDB through Athena can consume DynamoDB read capacity and may affect table performance.
• It also introduces analytical-query overhead and is not the normal choice for a microservice web application.

• Suspended an operator who correctly refused to use unsafe equipment.
• Rewarded another operator for using the equipment despite the broken safety guard.

• A — Management is not particularly concerned with managing risks.

• B — Employees will perceive that management does not care about health and safety risks.

• C — This factory’s safety record is likely to be poor.

• A. IDS attack signatures: An IDS primarily detects suspicious network activity; it is not the best control for scanning uploaded documents for malware.
• C. Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers and improves availability, but does not inspect files for malware.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications against attacks such as SQL injection and command injection. It may help secure the upload function, but malware scanning is the key requirement here.

• Driver node: Coordinates Spark jobs and runs in the compute environment.
• Worker node: Executes tasks and processes data.
• Databricks Filesystem (DBFS): Provides storage access for data used by compute resources.

• MFA: Protects sign-in and authentication.
• Azure Key Vault: Protects deployment secrets and credentials.
• Answer: No (B).

• \Pipeline1
• \Folder1\Lakehouse1

• Pipeline1 remains at the workspace root in Workspace1, so it is deployed to the root of Workspace2.
• Lakehouse1 was moved into Folder1, so its full path is preserved as \Folder1\Lakehouse1.
• Fabric deployment pipelines preserve folder paths because an item’s full path is treated as part of its name.

• Understating expenses and liabilities
• Overstating profit
• Misleading users of the financial information
• Potentially breaching integrity, objectivity, and professional competence and due care

• Namespace: The namespace associated with the code where the checkpoint was set.
• Time: When the checkpoint was captured or executed.

• Exception: Exceptions are viewed through debug logs or execution results, not as the primary Checkpoints tab information.
• Debug Statement: System.debug() output belongs in the Logs tab. A checkpoint captures program state, such as variables and their values, at a specific point in execution.

• Data Category Groups e categorias;
• Visibilidade dessas categorias para perfis ou permission sets.

• B e C: regras de compartilhamento não são o mecanismo apropriado para restringir resultados de busca do Knowledge por divisão.
• D: a role hierarchy não é o mecanismo principal para controlar a visibilidade de categorias do Knowledge. Além disso, a configuração correta é atribuir visibilidade a perfis ou permission sets.

• Domain controllers, because the requirement specifically excludes them. However, note that both member servers and domain controllers run Windows Server, so OS targeting alone cannot distinguish them unless the targeting option allows selecting the relevant server role/version. In the usual exam interpretation, target the applicable server OS category.
• Client computers, because they run a client Windows operating system.

• Domain: Targets membership in a domain, not the computer’s operating-system type.
• Security Group: Would require creating and maintaining a group containing all member servers, increasing administrative effort.
• Environment Variable: Not designed to reliably identify member servers.

text 
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.10 
 encapsulation dot1Q 3

• .10 is the router’s local subinterface number.
• dot1Q 3 identifies the 802.1Q VLAN tag carried on the trunk.

text 
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.3 
 encapsulation dot1Q 3

text 
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.2 
 encapsulation dot1Q 2

• Information sources: Collect security-related data, such as network packets, system logs, audit records, or application events.
• Analysis: Examines the collected data to identify suspicious activity, attacks, or policy violations.
• Response: Takes or recommends action, such as generating alerts, logging the event, or supporting a protective response.

• GPS coordinates
• Date and time the image was taken
• Camera or device information
• Image dimensions and software used

• Log data: Records generated by systems or applications, not normally embedded in image files.
• Encrypted data: Information intentionally encoded to prevent unauthorized access.
• Sensitive data: A broad classification, not the specific type of information being extracted.

• Internal hostnames and subdomains
• Network structure and naming conventions
• Servers and services
• Relationships between systems

• Determining ISP-assigned address space: Usually involves external registration and DNS information, not internal host discovery.
• Bypassing DNS sinkholing: Would require evidence that malicious DNS requests avoided redirection.
• Initial access: DNS queries alone do not show that the attacker gained access.
• Exfiltrating data: DNS tunneling can do this, but the snippet would typically show encoded or unusually long DNS queries.

apex 
Set<Id> accountIds = new Set<Id>{ accountId1, accountId2 }; 


List<Account> accounts = [ 
    SELECT Id, Name 
    FROM Account 
    WHERE Id IN :accountIds 
];

• A: LIMIT accepts a number, not a collection of IDs.
• B: Set.containsAll() checks set contents in Apex; it does not filter SOQL results.
• C: Database.query() accepts a dynamic SOQL string, not a Set<Id> directly.

1. Define – establish the project’s objectives, scope, feasibility and requirements.
2. Design – plan how the project will be carried out, including resources, schedules and controls.
3. Deliver – execute the project and produce the required outputs.
4. Develop – close the project formally and capture learning for future projects.

• Filing documentation and records
• Closing project and accounting systems
• Settling costs
• Handing over the completed work and obtaining sign-off
• Reviewing performance and giving feedback

• Financial performance
• Customer perspective
• Internal business processes
• Learning and growth

• Increasing the number of indicators can make the scorecard cluttered and less useful. Measures should be limited to those that are strategically important.
• The scorecard is mainly a tool for implementing and monitoring strategy, not for formulating strategy.
• It should contain both leading indicators and lagging indicators. Leading indicators predict future performance, while lagging indicators measure results already achieved.

• Vulnerability scanner: Identifies technical weaknesses in systems, applications, or devices.
• Penetration test: Simulates attacks to determine whether vulnerabilities can be exploited.
• SCAP (Security Content Automation Protocol): Uses standardized formats and protocols for automated vulnerability, configuration, and compliance checks.
• Illumination tool: Maps and analyzes broader supply-chain exposure and third-party risk.

• Maintain head office control: Transfer pricing generally supports decentralisation rather than direct head-office control.
• Establish centralised decision making: This conflicts with divisional autonomy.
• Develop a top-down culture: Transfer pricing is intended to support empowered divisions and goal congruence, not impose purely top-down management.

• Red team: Simulates attackers; exploits weaknesses to test security.
• Blue team: Defends systems; monitors, detects, and responds to attacks.
• Purple team: Combines red- and blue-team efforts to improve detection and defense.
• White team: Oversees or manages the test, defining rules, scope, and authorization.

• SQL injection
• Cross-site scripting (XSS)
• Malicious or malformed web requests
• Some application-layer attacks

• Layer 4 firewall: Filters based mainly on IP addresses, ports, and transport protocols; it cannot deeply inspect web application content.
• NGFW: Provides advanced network filtering and may include application awareness, but a WAF is more specifically designed to protect web applications.
• UTM: Combines several security functions in one appliance, but it is not the most targeted solution for a web portal.

• Two-part tariff pricing: $10 per unit
• Dual pricing: $20 per unit

Two-part tariff pricing

Dual pricing

• Division X, the seller, is credited with the market price: \(\$20\)
• Division Y, the buyer, is charged the marginal cost: \(\$10\)

• SQL injection
• Cross-site scripting (XSS)
• Malicious file uploads
• Common web-application exploits

• Layer 4 firewall: Filters primarily by IP addresses, ports, and transport protocols; it lacks detailed web-application inspection.
• NGFW: Provides advanced network filtering and may include application awareness, but a WAF is more specialized for protecting web applications.
• UTM: Combines several security functions in one device, but it is not specifically focused on web-application attacks.

• Behavioral and anomaly detection
• Threat intelligence integration
• User and entity behavior analytics
• Automated response actions, often through SOAR integration

• Virus signatures: Associated primarily with antivirus or endpoint protection.
• Security agent deployment: Usually an endpoint-management or EDR function.
• Vulnerability scanning: Typically performed by vulnerability-management tools, though a SIEM may integrate their results.

• A. IDS attack signatures: An IDS primarily detects suspicious network activity; it is not the best tool for scanning uploaded files.
• C. Load balancer: Improves availability and distributes traffic but does not inspect files for malware.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications against attacks such as SQL injection and command injection. It may inspect HTTP requests, but malware scanning of uploaded PDFs is the key requirement here.

• Due diligence: Investigating and evaluating a third party before entering into or continuing a business relationship.
• Attestation: An independent party provides assurance about an organization’s claims or controls. A SOC 2 examination is an example of an attestation engagement, but the analyst requesting and reviewing the report is performing due diligence.
• Internal audit: Reviews the organization’s own internal controls.
• Penetration testing: Actively tests systems for exploitable vulnerabilities.

• Suspended an operator who refused to use unsafe equipment.
• Paid another operator a bonus for using it.
• Prioritised short-term productivity over employee safety.

• A — Management is not particularly concerned with managing risks.

• B — Employees will perceive that management does not care about health and safety risks.

• C — The factory’s safety record is likely to be poor.

• Streams — track change data for tables or views.
• External tables — reference data stored in an external cloud storage location.

• Role — account-level security object.
• Warehouse — account-level compute resource.
• User — account-level security object.
• Share — account-level object used to share data.

• Azure Resource Manager (ARM) templates define the virtual machines and related Azure resources declaratively. You can deploy the same template repeatedly, ensuring consistent VM sizes, networking, storage, extensions, and other infrastructure settings.

• PowerShell DSC extension applies and maintains the required Windows configuration inside each VM. DSC is state-based: if a setting changes or becomes incorrect, DSC can bring it back to the desired configuration.

• Azure Pipelines deployment groups organize deployment targets, but they do not primarily enforce ongoing VM configuration.
• Custom Script Extension runs setup scripts, but it is generally less maintainable and does not continuously enforce configuration like DSC.
• Pipeline stage templates reuse pipeline workflow definitions; they do not configure the VMs themselves.

• Accept: Acknowledging the risk without taking additional action.
• Transfer: Shifting responsibility or financial impact to another party, such as through insurance or outsourcing.
• Mitigate: Reducing the likelihood or impact of the risk through controls.
• Avoid: Eliminating the activity or condition that creates the risk.

• Share files with the wrong people
• Use public links unnecessarily
• Fail to classify sensitive data
• Upload data to unauthorized services
• Misunderstand company sharing policies

• A — Step-up authentication: Helps protect administrator accounts, but does not directly address improper file sharing by users.
• C — Password complexity: Helps reduce password attacks, not accidental data disclosure.
• D — Mobile device management: Secures managed mobile devices, but does not directly control file-sharing behavior across the organization.

• A. Periodically rotate responsibilities: May reduce some risks, but it does not directly detect unauthorized changes.
• B. Review segregation-of-duties conflicts: Identifies incompatible access combinations, not whether a specific data change was unauthorized.
• C. Log changes in an outside application: Logs provide evidence, but someone must review and analyze them. Logging alone does not detect misuse.
• D. Independent review: Directly detects unauthorized changes and reduces the risk that the person making the change can conceal it.

• state preserves the client’s original context, such as the specific idea URL the user requested.
• The portal sends that value in the OAuth authorization request.
• Salesforce returns it after authorization, allowing the portal to redirect the user to the original idea rather than the Ideas home page.

• Bronze: Raw ingested data
• Silver: Cleaned, validated, and transformed data
• Gold: Business-level data for analytics, dashboards, and reporting

• Monitoring: Detects activity but does not remove the underlying risk.
• Patching: Useful for systems that must remain operational, but these desktops are unused.
• Isolating: Can be a temporary containment measure, but permanently removing unnecessary systems is more appropriate.

text 
ip route vrf Customer1 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 global 
ip route vrf Customer2 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 global 
ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan10 
ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan20

• The route in Customer1 VRF provides a path back to the Customer2 subnet, 172.16.1.0/24.
• The route in Customer2 VRF provides a path to the FTP server, 192.168.1.200.
• The keyword global tells the router to resolve the next hop using the global routing table, enabling controlled route leaking between the VRF and global table.
• The global routes identify the VLAN interfaces used to reach each customer network.

• AWS Network Firewall can inspect and block traffic across a VPC when traffic is routed through the firewall. A Drop action rule can deny traffic from the suspicious source IP.
• GuardDuty findings are sent to Security Hub.
• A Lambda function can be invoked when Security Hub receives a new GuardDuty finding, extract the source IP, and update the Network Firewall policy with a blocking rule.

• GuardDuty threat lists: Used to identify or increase the severity of findings; they do not directly block VPC traffic.
• AWS WAF: Protects supported web applications, such as CloudFront or Application Load Balancers. It does not provide general VPC-wide traffic blocking.
• GuardDuty suppression rules: Suppress or hide findings. They do not block the suspicious traffic.

• # Development
• # Testing
• # Production

• Separate endpoints: relate to compute or connectivity, not dashboard labels.
• Separate queries: retrieve or transform data but do not designate visual sections.
• Direct text written into the dashboard in editing mode: dashboards use text boxes, typically with Markdown formatting, rather than arbitrary text placed directly on the canvas.