CFA CFA I Exam Prep
CFA Level I Chartered Financial Analyst (Page 125 )

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• Atomicity: a write fully succeeds or does not appear.
• Consistency: table state remains valid.
• Isolation: concurrent operations do not corrupt one another.
• Durability: committed changes persist.

• Flexible schemas: common data lakes often support flexible or schema-on-read data.
• Open-source formats: common data lakes commonly use open formats such as Parquet.
• Scalable storage: cloud data lakes already provide scalable storage.

• A. Microsoft 365 group with Assigned membership
• C. Microsoft 365 group with Dynamic User membership

Why?

• Assigned membership: You explicitly add User1, User2, and User3.
• Dynamic User membership: Membership is automatically determined by a rule based on user attributes.

Why the other options are incorrect

• B and D: Security groups do not support the Microsoft 365 group expiration policy.
• E: Dynamic Device groups are intended for devices, not these users, and are also security groups.

1. Clear principles and boundaries — Employees have freedom, but decisions must remain within clear organizational values, policies and limits.
2. High degree of freedom — Managers are trusted to make decisions rather than seeking continual approval from senior management.
3. Frontline customer responsibility — Customer-facing managers should be empowered to manage customer relationships and respond quickly to needs.
4. Transparent and ethical information — Information should be openly available and used honestly, supporting trust and informed decision-making.

• Laws and regulations
• Litigation holds
• Industry or contractual obligations
• Tax, financial, health, or privacy requirements

• Business strategy and direction: May influence retention, but cannot override legal requirements.
• Storage capacity and longevity: Practical considerations, not the primary driver.
• Business ease and value analysis: May support decisions after compliance obligations are identified.

• A: Describes a broad purpose and direction, but is not the specific CIMA definition.
• C: “Scoping out” activities is too vague and incomplete.
• D: Combines long-term goals, strategies and policies, but describes a wider strategic-planning statement rather than the definition of strategy itself.

• The vulnerability scan identifies a vulnerability.
• The administrator verifies that the vulnerability is not present.
• Therefore, the scan produced a false positive.

• True positive: A vulnerability is reported and genuinely exists.
• False negative: A vulnerability exists, but the scan fails to detect it.
• True negative: No vulnerability exists, and the scan correctly reports no issue.

• Internal hostnames and subdomains
• Network structure and naming conventions
• Servers and services
• Relationships between systems

• Determining ISP-assigned address space: Usually involves external registration and DNS information, not internal host discovery.
• Bypassing DNS sinkholing: Would require evidence that malicious DNS requests avoided redirection.
• Initial access: DNS queries alone do not show that the attacker gained access.
• Exfiltrating data: DNS tunneling can do this, but the snippet would typically show encoded or unusually long DNS queries.

• Password spraying: Tries a few common passwords against many accounts; no indication of repeated login attempts.
• Remote-access Trojan (RAT): Could install malware, but it does not explain how the attacker obtained the administrator’s credentials.
• Dictionary attack: Tries words or common passwords against an account; again, the scenario specifically highlights Telnet’s lack of encryption.

• Data Cloud combines data from multiple systems.
• It resolves and organizes that data into a unified customer view.
• That unified view enables downstream actions such as personalized campaigns, segmentation, analytics, and activation.

• A = core platform value
• D = a resulting business use case or benefit

• Default network device credentials: More associated with external attackers or poor device configuration.
• Spear phishing emails: Commonly used to compromise users, but less characteristic of an insider who already has access.
• Typosquatting and impersonation: Primarily social-engineering techniques aimed at deceiving users.
• Unidentified removable devices: Provide a direct way to transfer data outside the organization and may bypass network monitoring.

• Information sources: Collect security-related data, such as network packets, system logs, audit records, or application events.
• Analysis: Examines the collected data to identify suspicious activity, attacks, or policy violations.
• Response: Takes or recommends action, such as generating alerts, logging the event, or supporting a protective response.

• 50% memory utilization baseline: The environment can be provisioned with excess capacity, leaving room for growth and workload spikes.
• Storage scalability: Cloud storage can generally be expanded as needed without redesigning the physical platform.
• Single circuit failure resilience: A properly designed IaaS provider uses redundant power circuits and infrastructure, so failure of one circuit should not take the platform offline.

• A — Dual PDUs: Helps with power redundancy but does not provide storage scalability.
• C — Network load balancing: Provides network-path resilience, not memory or storage scalability, and does not address a power-circuit failure.
• D — Multiple NAS devices: May improve storage capacity, but does not inherently provide power resilience or the required compute-capacity baseline.

• Customer information must not be revealed ? PII Detection
• Malicious instructions embedded in images/documents must be blocked ? Prompt Shields

• If the question allows multiple selections, choose PII Detection and Prompt Shields.
• If it requires one selection specifically for the image-based threat, choose Prompt Shields.

Correct reasoning

• Create storage5 as a General-purpose v2 (StorageV2) account.
• Configure Blob object replication from storage5 to an existing compatible storage account.
• The destination must support object replication—typically another StorageV2 or premium block blob account.
• Blob versioning must be enabled on both accounts.
• Blob change feed must be enabled on the source account.
• The accounts must meet Azure’s object-replication requirements, including being in supported regions and having compatible configuration.

1. Open the Microsoft Entra Connect wizard.
2. Select Configure.
3. Choose Customize synchronization options.
4. Authenticate when prompted.
5. On the Domain and OU filtering page, select:

1. Complete the wizard.

• Start-ADSyncSyncCycle only starts synchronization; it does not change which OUs are included.
• Manage federation configures federation settings, which are unrelated to OU filtering.
• Add-ADSyncConnectorAttributeInclusion concerns connector attributes, not selecting additional OUs for synchronization.

• The application failing to start or becoming unhealthy
• An incorrect probe path, port, or protocol
• The application needing more startup time
• Dependency or configuration failures
• A liveness probe being too aggressive

bash 
kubectl describe pod <pod-name> 
kubectl logs <pod-name> --previous

• Scale to more replicas: may hide the issue but does not diagnose it.
• Decrease initialDelaySeconds: makes probes run earlier and could worsen startup failures.
• Drain and reboot the node: node metrics are normal, so rebooting is not justified as the first step.

• Customers may boycott V’s products.
• Supermarket customers may stop buying from V.
• Investors may view V as having higher legal, ethical and reputational risk.
• V could face fines, lawsuits, contract losses and higher costs.
• Expected future profits may fall.

• Controlar o fluxo de dados entre S3 e SageMaker;
• Aplicar regras de segurança por meio da VPC;
• Reduzir a exposição dos dados;
• Permitir acesso privado ao bucket do S3.

• Amazon Inspector: avalia vulnerabilidades, mas não gerencia o fluxo de dados.
• Amazon Macie: ajuda a descobrir e proteger dados sensíveis no S3, mas não cria a conexão com o SageMaker.
• S3 Glacier Deep Archive: é uma classe de armazenamento para arquivamento, não uma solução de conectividade.

• B — The most significant risks are held by SQ.

• C — SQ should recognise the cars as inventory.

• F — SQ recognises revenue when LM sells a car to a third party.

• A: LM does not hold the most significant risks.
• D: LM does not recognise the cars as inventory.
• E: SQ should not recognise revenue when cars are merely delivered to LM.

• The audience and stakeholders
• The complexity and type of requirements
• The communication method and level of detail needed
• Whether to use diagrams, models, documents, demonstrations, or slides

• B: Authority to host the presentation is not the key preparation activity.
• C: Stakeholder sign-off may occur later; presenting requirements does not always require formal approval beforehand.
• D: A scribe may be useful in a meeting, but hiring one is not a core preparation requirement for presenting.

• C. Case after-insert trigger that publishes a Platform Event

• D. Custom Apex controller that publishes a Platform Event

• A. Trigger with a callout: Salesforce triggers should not make direct synchronous callouts, and this tightly couples transaction processing to the external system.
• B. Workflow Rule with Outbound Message: This can react to record changes, but it cannot reliably capture a user clicking a menu item. It also does not provide the same flexible event-driven model as Platform Events.

• Domain controllers, because the requirement specifically excludes them. However, note that both member servers and domain controllers run Windows Server, so OS targeting alone cannot distinguish them unless the targeting option allows selecting the relevant server role/version. In the usual exam interpretation, target the applicable server OS category.
• Client computers, because they run a client Windows operating system.

• Domain: Targets membership in a domain, not the computer’s operating-system type.
• Security Group: Would require creating and maintaining a group containing all member servers, increasing administrative effort.
• Environment Variable: Not designed to reliably identify member servers.

• B: Não é preciso implantar o modelo em um endpoint do Amazon SageMaker, pois o Bedrock já oferece a infraestrutura de inferência.
• C: O SageMaker Model Registry é usado para gerenciar modelos no SageMaker, não é requisito para modelos customizados no Bedrock.
• D: Não existe uma etapa geral de “conceder acesso” ao modelo customizado como requisito principal de uso. O ponto essencial é adquirir o Provisioned Throughput.

• MTTC: Time required to contain or limit the incident’s impact — best match.
• MTTR: Time required to remediate or recover from the incident; this may include eradication, restoration, and cleanup, which goes beyond merely stopping spread.
• MTTD: How long it takes to discover the incident.
• MTBF: Average time between failures, generally a reliability metric.

• IaaS: você gerencia a VM e o sistema operacional.
• PaaS: o Azure gerencia a infraestrutura; você se concentra no aplicativo.

• Import: Copies data into the Power BI model. It requires scheduled or manual refresh, so it may not meet the two-minute requirement.
• Live connection: Connects to an existing Power BI semantic model or Analysis Services model; it is not the appropriate choice for connecting directly to the Azure SQL database in this scenario.

• Limiting the number of MAC addresses allowed on a switch port
• Restricting ports to specific known MAC addresses
• Taking an action—such as dropping frames or shutting down the port—when the limit is exceeded

• Load balancer: Distributes application traffic; it does not protect switch MAC tables.
• IPS: May detect some attack traffic, but is not the primary control for switch-port MAC limits.
• NGFW: Filters network traffic at the firewall, but does not directly control MAC addresses learned by a switch.

• Deterrent control: The signs warning that people may be filmed can discourage unauthorized or malicious activity. They do not directly stop the action; they influence behavior.
• Detective control: CCTV records or monitors activity so security personnel can identify events or investigate them afterward.

• Preventive: Stops an incident from occurring, such as access control.
• Corrective: Restores systems after an incident.
• Directive: Instructs people to behave in a certain way, such as a security policy.
• Compensating: An alternative control used when the preferred control is not feasible.

• The connected switch
• The switch’s port/interface
• Device and port descriptions
• Sometimes VLAN or management information

• IKE: Establishes security associations for IPsec VPNs.
• VLAN: Defines logical network segmentation; it does not identify a physical switch port.
• netstat: Displays local network connections and statistics, not the upstream switch and port.

• Red team: Offensive security; attempts exploitation and simulates attackers.
• Blue team: Defensive security; monitors, detects, and responds to attacks.
• Purple team: Combines red- and blue-team activities to improve defenses, but is not the best direct answer here.
• White team: Usually oversees or coordinates an exercise, including rules of engagement and scope.

• Admin access to the deployment pipeline
• Contributor access to the Development and Test workspaces
• Viewer access to the Production workspace

• Amazon EC2 instances — ???????? ?? ?? ??????? CPU, memory ??? instance size ???????? ???????
• AWS Lambda functions — memory configuration ?????????? ???????
• Amazon EBS volumes — volume type ?? size optimize ???? ???????
• ??????? ECS workloads — resource configuration ? cost optimization-?? ???????

• Memory ? compute usage ?????????? ???? custom code ????? ???? development ? maintenance ??????
• Cost allocation tags ???? ????? ??? ?????? ???? ??????? ???; inefficient resource ??????? ?? recommendation ???? ???
• CloudTrail resource ???? ?? API activity ??????, resource utilization ????

text 
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.10 
 encapsulation dot1Q 3

• .10 is the router’s local subinterface number.
• dot1Q 3 identifies the 802.1Q VLAN tag carried on the trunk.

text 
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.3 
 encapsulation dot1Q 3

text 
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.2 
 encapsulation dot1Q 2

• Suspended an operator who correctly refused to use unsafe equipment.
• Rewarded another operator for using the equipment despite the broken safety guard.

• A — Management is not particularly concerned with managing risks.

• B — Employees will perceive that management does not care about health and safety risks.

• C — This factory’s safety record is likely to be poor.

• Each Case must follow defined support steps.
• Each step must be completed within a specified time limit.

• Case Escalation Rules: Escalate Cases based mainly on age or criteria; they do not model a complete sequence of service steps.
• Process Builder with Scheduled Actions: Can automate time-based actions but is not the standard framework for Case service-level commitments.
• Omni-Channel Routing: Routes work to agents based on capacity and priority; it does not track Case lifecycle deadlines.

• Required response and resolution times
• Availability or uptime targets
• Performance standards
• Support obligations
• Remedies or penalties for failing to meet the terms

• SOW (Statement of Work): Defines the project’s scope, tasks, deliverables, and schedule.
• MOA (Memorandum of Agreement): Describes agreed responsibilities between parties, often for a specific activity.
• MOU (Memorandum of Understanding): Records a mutual understanding or intention, usually less formal than a contract.

• Streams — track change data for tables or views.
• External tables — reference data stored in an external cloud storage location.

• Role — account-level security object.
• Warehouse — account-level compute resource.
• User — account-level security object.
• Share — account-level object used to share data.

• Azure Machine Learning is the overall Azure service.
• Machine Learning designer is the visual, drag-and-drop interface within Azure Machine Learning.
• Microsoft may refer to the broader product as Azure Machine Learning studio, while “Designer” remains the specific visual workflow tool.

• Azure Logic Apps: Workflow and integration automation.
• Azure Batch: Large-scale parallel or batch compute.
• Azure Cosmos DB: Globally distributed NoSQL database.

• Resources that do not need internet access should remain on private network segments.
• Internet-facing access should be restricted to systems that require it.
• Access should be explicitly allowed rather than broadly exposed.

• A: A single administrator with access to core functions may violate least privilege if that access is broader than necessary.
• B: Inspecting traffic supports monitoring and defense, but does not itself limit privileges.
• C: Updating routing configurations supports availability and connectivity, not least privilege.

• Existing measures
• Relationships
• Calculated columns
• Tables and fields
• Existing transformations in the model

• SharePoint folder: Reconnects to the source files. You would likely need to recreate the model and measures.
• Power BI dataflows: Primarily provide reusable data preparation and storage, but they do not automatically provide the existing semantic model and measures.
• Excel workbook: Connects directly to the source file and would also require rebuilding the model and measures.

• Outer packet: 10.5.1.1 > 52.165.16.154
• IPv4 protocol field: 41, which indicates IPv6 encapsulation
• Inner packet: IPv6 traffic between 2001:... addresses

• MAC address spoofing: Changes Layer 2 addressing; it does not explain the IPv6-in-IPv4 structure.
• Steganography: Hides data inside files or media, not visibly in a tunneled protocol.
• Broken encryption: No evidence of encryption being cracked.
• On-path sniffing: Involves intercepting traffic, not sending data to an external host.

• Portfolio definition cycle — establishes and maintains the portfolio strategy, objectives, and management framework.
• Portfolio delivery cycle — coordinates and monitors the delivery of change initiatives, ensuring the portfolio remains aligned with strategic objectives and delivers value.

• Practice — a structured area of portfolio management activity, such as risk management or resource management.
• Technique — a method used to perform an activity; it is not the term for portfolio delivery itself.
• Principle — a guiding rule for effective portfolio management.

• Menerjemahkan soal ke bahasa Indonesia.
• Menyebutkan jawaban yang benar.
• Menjelaskan alasan jawaban tersebut.
• Memberi tahu jika kunci jawaban yang tersedia tampaknya keliru.
• Menjelaskan istilah teknis penting dalam soal.

• A — Use a custom controller: An Apex class can contain the page’s logic.
• C — Use a standard controller with extensions: The standard controller provides basic CRUD behavior, while an extension adds custom logic.
• E — Use a standard controller: Useful when the page works mainly with one Salesforce object and needs standard functionality.

• A page with no controller for static or controller-free content.
• A custom controller with extensions; extensions are not limited only to standard controllers.

apex 
for (Account updatedAccount : Trigger.new) { 
    AccountTriggerHelper.notinyxternalSystem(updatedAccount.Id); 
}

• Too many callouts: The callout occurs asynchronously in the future method, and each future transaction can perform its permitted callouts.
• Too many SOQL queries: The SOQL query is inside the future execution, not repeatedly in the trigger transaction.
• Callout from triggers not supported: Direct callouts from triggers are prohibited, but the trigger delegates the callout to asynchronous Apex, which is the correct pattern.

• Customer: Dual
• Date: Dual
• Sales: DirectQuery
• SalesAggregate: Import

• Sales – DirectQuery: Near-real-time data should not rely on an imported cache. DirectQuery sends queries to the source when visuals are loaded, allowing recent sales data to appear.
• SalesAggregate – Import: A weekly refresh is sufficient, and imported data generally gives faster visual performance because it is stored in Power BI’s in-memory cache.
• Customer and Date – Dual: These are dimension tables used with both the DirectQuery Sales table and the imported SalesAggregate table. Dual allows Power BI to use cached data when possible, while still behaving appropriately in queries involving DirectQuery data. This can improve performance and reduce unnecessary limited relationships.

• Custom domain: miami.weyland.com requires a paid App Service tier; Free and Shared are unsuitable.
• Two instances: Standard supports scaling to multiple instances.
• SSL: Standard includes SSL support.
• 12 GB storage: Basic provides only about 10 GB, so it does not meet the requirement. Standard provides substantially more storage.
• Cost minimization: Standard is the lowest tier among the choices that satisfies all requirements.

1. Yes — Microsoft Foundry provides a secure, governed environment for building and managing generative AI applications and agents. It brings together models, data, tools, evaluation, deployment, and monitoring.

1. Yes — Foundry is designed for enterprise workloads and supports scaling AI applications as usage grows. Scalability comes from the underlying Azure services and managed infrastructure.

1. Yes — Foundry can be used in solutions involving image recognition and computer vision. Applications can use vision-capable models and Azure AI vision capabilities for tasks such as image analysis, object detection, and OCR.

• SharePoint search: Finds documents based on search terms, but it does not reliably identify every 32-character account number for DLP enforcement.
• A hunting query in Microsoft 365 Defender: Used for security investigations, not for defining sensitive content in a DLP policy.
• Azure Information Protection: Uses classification and labeling; it does not automatically identify this specific account-number pattern unless configured with a matching sensitive information type.
• RegEx pattern matching: Best suited for structured identifiers with a known format, such as account numbers, employee IDs, or policy numbers.