CFA CFA I Exam Prep
CFA Level I Chartered Financial Analyst (Page 36 )

• Training or coaching
• Mentoring
• Additional support or resources
• Targeted performance improvement plans

• A: Recognition may be appropriate, but awards do not address identified gaps.
• C: Rotating schedules does not necessarily improve the specific competencies that are missing.
• D: Assessment results should be handled sensitively, but keeping them entirely private prevents useful feedback and development discussions.

• IaaS: você gerencia a VM e o sistema operacional.
• PaaS: o Azure gerencia a infraestrutura; você se concentra no aplicativo.

• Architects design overall Splunk infrastructure and data strategy.
• Administrators manage configuration, access, and system operations.
• Knowledge Managers create and maintain knowledge objects such as data models, field extractions, and event types. They may support pivots, but they are not the primary users of them.

• B — Both inner and outer classes can be declared as with sharing.

• C — Inner classes do not inherit sharing settings from the container class.

apex 
public with sharing class OuterClass { 
    public with sharing class InnerClass { 
        // Explicitly uses sharing rules 
    } 
}

1. Identify the fact table

• Records something that happened, such as a sale, test, appointment, or measurement
• Contains foreign keys to other tables
• Contains measures or numeric results
• Has many rows

2. Identify a dimension table

• Describe people, products, dates, locations, or departments
• Contain descriptive columns
• Are referenced by the fact table
• Have fewer rows than the fact table

3. Identify the surrogate key

• System-generated
• Unique within the dimension
• Often named PatientKey, CustomerKey, or similar
• Usually an integer
• Not meaningful outside the model

• What information each stakeholder needs
• When and how often it should be communicated
• Which format or channel should be used
• Who is responsible for communicating it

• A: The team should not decide stakeholder communications without first checking the established plan and CEO’s needs.
• B: An executive summary may be appropriate, but choosing a solution before reviewing the plan is premature.
• D: The stakeholder engagement plan addresses how to engage stakeholders, but this is primarily a communication planning issue.

• Azure Resource Manager (ARM) templates define the virtual machines and related Azure resources declaratively. You can deploy the same template repeatedly, ensuring consistent VM sizes, networking, storage, extensions, and other infrastructure settings.

• PowerShell DSC extension applies and maintains the required Windows configuration inside each VM. DSC is state-based: if a setting changes or becomes incorrect, DSC can bring it back to the desired configuration.

• Azure Pipelines deployment groups organize deployment targets, but they do not primarily enforce ongoing VM configuration.
• Custom Script Extension runs setup scripts, but it is generally less maintainable and does not continuously enforce configuration like DSC.
• Pipeline stage templates reuse pipeline workflow definitions; they do not configure the VMs themselves.

• Endpoint Manager: manages hosts and sensor-related settings.
• Falcon Investigator: supports investigation and analysis, but does not necessarily grant RTR access.
• Remediation Manager: handles remediation-related actions rather than interactive host access.

• # Development
• # Testing
• # Production

• Separate endpoints: relate to compute or connectivity, not dashboard labels.
• Separate queries: retrieve or transform data but do not designate visual sections.
• Direct text written into the dashboard in editing mode: dashboards use text boxes, typically with Markdown formatting, rather than arbitrary text placed directly on the canvas.

• The identified risk
• Its likelihood and potential impact
• The person or team responsible for handling it
• The response or treatment plan
• Risk thresholds, such as when escalation or action is required
• Current status and review dates

• Risk tolerance: The amount of risk an organization is willing to accept; it is a concept or limit, not usually the primary documentation.
• Risk transfer: Moving the responsibility or financial impact of a risk to another party, such as through insurance.
• Risk analysis: The process of evaluating risk likelihood and impact.

• Physical: Protects facilities or equipment, such as locks and security cameras.
• Technical: Uses technology, such as firewalls, encryption, or access controls.
• Operational: Covers day-to-day actions and processes, such as training, backups, or incident response.
• Managerial: Includes policies, standards, risk assessments, and procedures.

• Additional running costs: $800
• Less depreciation: $300

• The $100 reduction in fixed production overhead absorbed is only an accounting reallocation. It does not represent an actual saving in total fixed overhead.

• Azure Resource Manager (ARM) templates
• Or, in newer Azure terminology, Bicep files

• Sales process: Controls which Opportunity Stage values are available.
• Record type: Associates the appropriate sales process with a business scenario and controls available picklist values.
• Page layout: Controls which fields are displayed and whether they are required or read-only.

• Energy Market Team 1 ? Record Type 1, Sales Process 1, Page Layout 1
• Energy Market Team 2 ? Record Type 2, Sales Process 2, Page Layout 2
• Services/Installation Team ? Record Type 3, Sales Process 3, Page Layout 3

1. Install a Cassandra-compatible ODBC driver.
2. Configure a data source name (DSN), if required.
3. In Power BI Desktop, select Get Data > ODBC.
4. Choose the configured DSN and connect.

• Microsoft SQL Server database: Connects to SQL Server, not Cassandra.
• OLE DB: Requires a compatible OLE DB provider; this is not the standard choice for Cassandra in Power BI.
• OData: Requires Cassandra data to be exposed through an OData service, which is not the normal direct connection method.

• Replaces the verbal message — this describes non-verbal communication being used instead of words.
• Substitutes for verbal communication — similar; it means communicating without speech.
• Confuses the verbal message — this occurs when non-verbal signals contradict or obscure the spoken message.

1. The specific table — for example, incident
2. The parent table — for example, task
3. The wildcard table — *, which applies broadly

• Suspended an operator who correctly refused to use unsafe equipment.
• Rewarded another operator for using the equipment despite the broken safety guard.

• A — Management is not particularly concerned with managing risks.

• B — Employees will perceive that management does not care about health and safety risks.

• C — This factory’s safety record is likely to be poor.

• Maintain head office control: Transfer pricing generally supports decentralisation rather than direct head-office control.
• Establish centralised decision making: This conflicts with divisional autonomy.
• Develop a top-down culture: Transfer pricing is intended to support empowered divisions and goal congruence, not impose purely top-down management.

• VLAN 10 for data
• VLAN 20 for voice

• A: Describes physical trunking or logical switch ports, not an SVI.
• B: An SVI can provide management access, but that is only one use—not the best description here.
• D: SVI use is not related to running out of physical ports.

• Storage usage of files stored in Microsoft Teams: SharePoint site usage report

• Number of active users per team: Microsoft Teams usage report

1. SharePoint site usage report
2. Microsoft Teams usage report

• A — Correct: Identify the data required by Salesforce, its dependencies, and how it should be validated. Verification scripts help confirm record counts, relationships, field mappings, and data integrity after migration.
• D — Correct: Use a full sandbox and perform trial migrations using realistic—or appropriately masked—legacy data. This exposes transformation, volume, dependency, and integration issues before production cutover.
• B — Less appropriate: Phased user migration and parallel operation primarily address user adoption and rollout risk, not the technical risks of data migration.
• C — Less appropriate: Although sandbox testing and integration testing are valuable, the option emphasizes test-data generation rather than validating the migration with representative legacy data. “A full sandbox for all systems” may also be impractical.

• A — Capacity: The system must handle all current records and anticipated future records. A system that cannot cope with volume will quickly become ineffective.
• C — Accuracy: Academic records are critical, so the new system must be at least as accurate as the existing system and comparable systems. Poor accuracy could cause serious administrative and reputational problems.
• D — Integration: Linking with the university’s financial systems supports consistency and avoids duplicate data entry, especially for registration, deregistration and fee-related transactions.

• B — Parallel running: This is a useful implementation and risk-control technique, but it is not an essential feature of the system itself. It may also be expensive and time-consuming.
• E — Internet access for all information: This creates significant confidentiality and security risks. External access might be needed for selected services, but unrestricted access to all information is not essential and would be inappropriate for student records.

• Data loss prevention (DLP): Helps detect or prevent sensitive data from being copied or transmitted, but it does not primarily protect a stolen laptop’s stored data.
• Operating system hardening: Reduces vulnerabilities and attack surface but does not encrypt files if the device is stolen.
• Boot security: Helps ensure that only trusted software starts, but it does not fully protect the drive if an attacker accesses it offline.

1. Clear principles and boundaries — Employees have freedom, but decisions must remain within clear organizational values, policies and limits.
2. High degree of freedom — Managers are trusted to make decisions rather than seeking continual approval from senior management.
3. Frontline customer responsibility — Customer-facing managers should be empowered to manage customer relationships and respond quickly to needs.
4. Transparent and ethical information — Information should be openly available and used honestly, supporting trust and informed decision-making.

• GPS coordinates
• Date and time the image was taken
• Camera or device information
• Image dimensions and software used

• Log data: Records generated by systems or applications, not normally embedded in image files.
• Encrypted data: Information intentionally encoded to prevent unauthorized access.
• Sensitive data: A broad classification, not the specific type of information being extracted.

1. Search & Intelligence in the Microsoft 365 admin center — No

1. Audit in the Microsoft Defender portal — Yes

1. Audit in the Microsoft Purview portal — Yes

• 10 minutes have elapsed, or
• 20 MB of accounting data has accumulated

• Controlar o fluxo de dados entre S3 e SageMaker;
• Aplicar regras de segurança por meio da VPC;
• Reduzir a exposição dos dados;
• Permitir acesso privado ao bucket do S3.

• Amazon Inspector: avalia vulnerabilidades, mas não gerencia o fluxo de dados.
• Amazon Macie: ajuda a descobrir e proteger dados sensíveis no S3, mas não cria a conexão com o SageMaker.
• S3 Glacier Deep Archive: é uma classe de armazenamento para arquivamento, não uma solução de conectividade.

apex 
Set<Id> accountIds = new Set<Id>{ accountId1, accountId2 }; 


List<Account> accounts = [ 
    SELECT Id, Name 
    FROM Account 
    WHERE Id IN :accountIds 
];

• A: LIMIT accepts a number, not a collection of IDs.
• B: Set.containsAll() checks set contents in Apex; it does not filter SOQL results.
• C: Database.query() accepts a dynamic SOQL string, not a Set<Id> directly.

• SharePoint search: Finds documents based on search terms, but it does not reliably identify every 32-character account number for DLP enforcement.
• A hunting query in Microsoft 365 Defender: Used for security investigations, not for defining sensitive content in a DLP policy.
• Azure Information Protection: Uses classification and labeling; it does not automatically identify this specific account-number pattern unless configured with a matching sensitive information type.
• RegEx pattern matching: Best suited for structured identifiers with a known format, such as account numbers, employee IDs, or policy numbers.

• NIDS: Monitors network traffic for suspicious activity and network-based attacks targeting the application or its supporting services.
• HIPS: Protects an individual host by monitoring processes, files, and system activity. It can help secure the web server, but it is not focused specifically on the application’s network attack surface.
• SIEM: Aggregates and correlates logs; it does not directly prevent attacks.
• Honeypot: A decoy system, not the primary protection for a production web application.
• Certificate revocation list: Deals with certificate trust, not application exploitation.

• Group1 — security-enabled: Eligible.
• Group2 — mail-enabled and security-enabled: Eligible because it is still a security group.
• Group3 — Microsoft 365 group: Not eligible for group-based licensing.
• Group4 — Microsoft 365 group, not security-enabled: Not eligible.

• Third-party enterprise application with embedded AI: The provider manages most security controls. The customer mainly manages users, data, and configuration.
• Application using an existing third-party FM: The customer controls the application and its inputs/outputs, but the provider controls the underlying model and infrastructure.
• Fine-tuning a third-party FM: The customer has additional responsibility for training data, data protection, and model behavior, but still depends on the provider’s base model and platform.
• Building and training a model from scratch: The customer controls the model, training data, application, deployment, and many security safeguards. This creates the greatest security ownership.

• Identifying the communication strategy: Usually part of a business continuity or incident response plan.
• Evaluating the risk management plan: Part of risk assessment and risk management activities.
• Establishing backup and recovery procedures: Usually part of disaster recovery planning.
• Developing the incident response plan: Part of incident response planning.

• Laws and regulations
• Litigation holds
• Industry or contractual obligations
• Tax, financial, health, or privacy requirements

• Business strategy and direction: May influence retention, but cannot override legal requirements.
• Storage capacity and longevity: Practical considerations, not the primary driver.
• Business ease and value analysis: May support decisions after compliance obligations are identified.

• Internal hostnames and subdomains
• Network structure and naming conventions
• Servers and services
• Relationships between systems

• Determining ISP-assigned address space: Usually involves external registration and DNS information, not internal host discovery.
• Bypassing DNS sinkholing: Would require evidence that malicious DNS requests avoided redirection.
• Initial access: DNS queries alone do not show that the attacker gained access.
• Exfiltrating data: DNS tunneling can do this, but the snippet would typically show encoded or unusually long DNS queries.

• Disaster recovery backups
• Long-term backup retention
• Data archiving that still needs occasional access

• Multi-Regional Storage: Intended for frequently accessed data needing broad geographic availability; it costs more.
• Regional Storage: Suitable for frequently accessed data within one region.
• Nearline Storage: Intended for data accessed roughly once per month, such as monthly backups.
• Coldline Storage: Better fit for backups accessed only during a disaster or occasional recovery event.

• Operating profit is affected because transfer price determines internal sales revenue.
• Return on investment (ROI) is affected because ROI depends partly on operating profit.
• Sales revenue is affected because the division records revenue from transferring its output.
• Cost of components purchased is not affected by the transfer price. These are input costs paid to external suppliers and are based on the supplier’s price.

• A: It allows for branching and merging...

• C: It allows multiple engineers to work against the same code and configuration files and manage differences and conflicts.

• B: Build automation and infrastructure provisioning are handled by CI/CD and automation tools, not by version control alone.
• D: User Stories and backlogs are managed by project-management tools.
• E: Version control stores and tracks code, but it does not itself ensure that developers write effective unit tests.

• Early units show relatively large time savings.
• Later units still take less time, but the reduction becomes progressively smaller.
• The curve therefore becomes flatter as production approaches 256 units.

• B: The reduction is not constant; learning normally diminishes over time.
• C: Time does not reduce at an increasing rate.
• D: A steady state may eventually be reached, but the question concerns the first 255 units while learning is still occurring.

1. Define – establish the project’s objectives, scope, feasibility and requirements.
2. Design – plan how the project will be carried out, including resources, schedules and controls.
3. Deliver – execute the project and produce the required outputs.
4. Develop – close the project formally and capture learning for future projects.

• Filing documentation and records
• Closing project and accounting systems
• Settling costs
• Handing over the completed work and obtaining sign-off
• Reviewing performance and giving feedback

• If the hashes match, the software has likely not changed.
• If they differ, the software was modified or corrupted.

• Encryption: Protects confidentiality by making data unreadable; it does not primarily verify that software was unchanged.
• Baselines: Establish expected configurations or states, but hashing is the specific method for checking file integrity.
• Tokenization: Replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive tokens and is unrelated to software integrity.

• Highly polished, organization-wide presentations
• Advanced dashboard design and customization
• Broader business-user distribution and interaction
• Specialized BI governance and modeling features

• Constrained VMs: VMs whose workloads are experiencing resource pressure, such as insufficient CPU or memory. They may need additional resources or optimization.
• Overprovisioned VMs: VMs allocated more CPU, memory, or storage than their workloads require. Their resources may be reclaimed or reduced.

• Underprovisioned VMs: This is not the predefined view identified for this report question.
• Zombie VMs: These are typically inactive or unused VMs and are useful for cleanup, but they are not the two views specifically intended here to identify inefficient resource allocation.

• The job keeps 31 days of regular restore points. A backup from the week of January 1 is older than 31 days by March 20, so it is no longer expected to remain on the performance tier.
• It is also a weekly GFS full backup, retained for 14 weeks. Therefore, it is still protected and has not been deleted.
• In a Scale-out Backup Repository, older backups can be moved from the performance tier to the capacity tier—typically object storage—according to the configured offload policy.
• The archive tier is not selected because the question’s configuration does not indicate that the backup has been archived there.

• Input validation: Prevents malicious or malformed input within an application; it does not authenticate a software package.
• Secure cookies: Protect web-session cookies; they do not protect downloadable software.
• Fuzzing: Tests software by supplying unexpected input to find vulnerabilities; it does not verify software integrity.

• C. Case after-insert trigger that publishes a Platform Event

• D. Custom Apex controller that publishes a Platform Event

• A. Trigger with a callout: Salesforce triggers should not make direct synchronous callouts, and this tightly couples transaction processing to the external system.
• B. Workflow Rule with Outbound Message: This can react to record changes, but it cannot reliably capture a user clicking a menu item. It also does not provide the same flexible event-driven model as Platform Events.

• Assign endpoints to a group based on the result of one policy.
• Use that group as the scope of another policy.
• This effectively passes the endpoints from one policy’s processing flow to another.