CFA Sustainable-Investing Exam Actual Questions
Sustainable Investing Certificate(CFA-SIC) (Page 15 )

1. Download the updated VPN client configuration package from the Azure VPN gateway.
2. Remove or update the existing VPN client configuration on the Windows 10 workstation.
3. Install the new package and reconnect.

• The AWS Support Concierge is a specialized team within Enterprise Support whose primary role is handling billing and account questions and helping with account setup and getting started.
• They are not the source for architecture guidance or development assistance; those services are provided by Technical Account Managers (TAMs) or Solutions Architects as part of Enterprise Support.
• For technical support cases, customers typically interact with AWS Support engineers or the TAMs, not the Concierge. The Concierge may route or coordinate related requests, but they don’t provide the technical resolution.

• What Concierge does: billing and account inquiries, onboarding help, coordination with AWS support.
• What Concierge does not do: provide architecture/design guidance or in-depth technical support case resolutions.

• Correct answer: B — A reservation for the server based on the MAC address.

• Why this is the best choice:

• Why the other options are less suitable:

• Quick takeaway: Use a DHCP reservation to give the file server a fixed IP while still benefiting from centralized DHCP management.

• Shadow IT describes employees using unsanctioned tools or methods to access systems, often without IT oversight (e.g., bypassing the VPN).
• Not A (Espionage): this implies external covert actors; here the activity is internal.
• Not B (Data exfiltration): there’s no explicit data transfer shown, just bypassing the VPN.
• Not C (Nation-state attack): this involves external political/strategic actors; not the internal behavior described.

• Implement policy and training to enforce approved tools.
• Use IAM, VPN enforcement, and network access controls to ensure only sanctioned access.
• Monitor for unsanctioned tools and provide secure, approved alternatives.

• A limited lifetime
• Permissions defined by an IAM role or policy
• The ability to access AWS APIs without using long-term IAM user credentials

• Amazon API Gateway — Builds and manages APIs; it does not generally issue AWS credentials for applications.
• IAM users — Usually use long-term credentials, which are less suitable for applications.
• IAM instance profiles — Provide temporary role credentials to applications running on EC2 instances, but are specifically tied to EC2. The broader requirement described is best met by AWS STS.

• What the scenario tests: How monitoring paths on a Universal Forwarder (UF) behave when you deploy an app via the Deployment Server.
• How monitoring is configured: Log paths to monitor are defined in inputs.conf (within apps/local on the UF). Splunk on the UF merges inputs from all apps and local config.
• Key point: Deploying a new app that adds a monitor for a log file does not typically remove existing monitors. The UF will continue monitoring any previously configured paths and will add the new ones from the deployed app.

• Correct answer: C) /var/log/maillog and /var/log/messages.

• All authentication events must be processed by PolicyApp. By using two separate topics, you can route sign-in and sign-out events to the same app (via subscriptions pointing to PolicyApp), ensuring both types are processed.
• Sign-outs must be processed as fast as possible. Isolating sign-out events on their own topic/subscription lets you scale and prioritize that path independently from sign-ins, reducing contention and latency.
• Decoupling the flows provides better control and RBAC granularity. You can apply different access controls and scaling policies per topic/subscription if needed.
• A single subscription with a subject filter (e.g., subjectBeginsWith) would still require handling both event types and wouldn’t offer the same isolation and independent scaling benefits as separate topics and subscriptions.

• Risk transfer means shifting the financial impact of a threat from the organization to another party (the insurer). Buying cyber insurance accomplishes this shift.
• It is not Accept: acceptance of risk would be tolerating it without action.
• It is not Mitigate: mitigation involves reducing likelihood or impact with controls, not shifting costs.
• It is not Avoid: avoidance would be not engaging in the activity that creates the risk; insurance does not remove the risk itself.

• Answer: C – netstat -an

• netstat -an lists all active connections and listening ports with numeric addresses, without resolving names. This lets you spot DoS patterns such as a flood of connections to a specific port or many connections from a single or few IPs.
• The other options don’t help as directly:

• Windows: netstat -an and look for numerous ESTABLISHED connections to a service or many SYNs to a port.
• Filter by port, e.g., netstat -an | findstr :80, or on Linux: ss -tunap | grep ':80'.

• Netstat provides a snapshot. DoS detection often benefits from continuous monitoring, flow data, and IDS/IPS logs.

• Control plane: Managed by Databricks and contains the Databricks web application, workspace services, cluster management, and job orchestration.
• Data plane: Runs in your cloud account and contains compute resources such as:

• Worker node: Data plane compute.
• Driver node: Data plane compute.
• JDBC data source: Usually an external data system.
• Databricks Filesystem (DBFS): Provides storage access and is backed by cloud object storage rather than being entirely part of the control plane.

• Correct answer: Set-MsolCompanySettings.

• Self-service sign-up for Azure AD/Microsoft 365 is controlled at the tenant level via the company settings. Running Set-MsolCompanySettings lets you enable/disable this directory self-service sign-up across the tenant, preventing those contoso.com users from creating new accounts themselves.
• The other options are not about controlling how new user accounts are created:

• Premium file shares: contoso104 only
• Blob access tiers: contoso101, contoso102, and contoso103

• Premium Azure Files shares require a storage account with the FileStorage account kind. This is a specialized account type and is not used for blob storage.
• Blob access tiers such as Hot, Cool, and—where supported—Archive apply to blob-capable accounts, such as General-purpose v2 or BlobStorage accounts shown in the exhibit.
• contoso104 is therefore excluded from the blob-tier selection because it is the premium Files account.

• TCP is connection-oriented. It establishes a connection before data transfer using a three-way handshake (SYN, SYN-ACK, ACK), enabling reliable delivery, ordering, and flow control.

• UDP is connectionless. It sends datagrams without a prior connection and provides no guarantee of delivery, order, or protection against duplicates; any reliability is up to the application.

• B incorrectly states UDP uses acknowledgment packets; UDP has no built-in ACKs.
• C wrongly claims UDP provides reliable transfer and that TCP is connectionless.
• D misstates framing bits; neither protocol uses the listed TCP/UDP handshake bits in frames.

• En Cisco SD-Access, el fabric overlay se extiende hasta lo inalámbrico; los APs son nodos de borde del fabric y su tráfico queda dentro del overlay.
• El cliente inalámbrico genera tráfico que viaja por el overlay, pero no es un componente del fabric en sí.
• El WLC es principalmente una herramienta de gestión y control, no forma parte del overlay; el underlay es el transporte físico.

• prompt: the input or instruction given to the model
• completion: the desired response

json 
{"prompt":"Summarize this customer complaint.","completion":"The customer reports a delayed shipment."}

• B: A .txt file containing CSV-style lines is not automatically a valid fine-tuning dataset. The required structure and format must match the selected Bedrock model.
• C: Provisioned Throughput provides dedicated inference capacity; it does not fine-tune a model.
• D: Journals and textbooks might support domain adaptation or pretraining, but they do not provide the prompt-to-answer examples typically required for supervised fine-tuning.

• Event | search "error"
• Event | where EventType == "error"
• search in (Event) "error"

• Correct answer: A — The degradation of a service.

• Why: A service request is a formal request from a user for something that is pre-approved and routine (e.g., provisioning a laptop, replacing a toner cartridge). Those are typical service request actions. The degradation of a service, however, is an incident: it describes a problem affecting service quality or availability and is handled by Incident Management (and possibly Problem Management), not as a standard service request.

• Quick note on the other options:

• The first step in risk management is to understand objectives, constraints, and drivers from those who care about the project. This stakeholder engagement helps identify what could go wrong and what risks are most critical.
• Only after you’ve gathered input from stakeholders should you identify risks and document them in the risk register. Updating the risk register (option C) is important, but it comes after identifying and analyzing risks.
• Options B (ensure resources) and D (revise the risk management plan) are actions that may follow once risks are identified and understood; they’re not the initial step.

• The correct answer is Mass Transfer Tool.

• The Mass Transfer Records tool is Salesforce’s built-in way to reassign ownership of existing records in bulk. In this scenario, you need to transfer ownership of the departed rep’s accounts and opportunities to a new rep while keeping the team structure intact.

• Go to Setup > Data Management > Mass Transfer Records.
• Choose the object: Accounts (and then Opportunities, if needed).
• Set “Transfer From” (the leaving rep) and “Transfer To” (the new rep).
• Decide whether to transfer related records as well (e.g., opportunities tied to accounts) and proceed.
• Review and confirm.

• Data Loader / Data Import Wizard are for bulk import/export, not bulk reassigning ownership.
• Dataloader.io is a third-party tool; the built-in Mass Transfer tool is the standard Salesforce method for this task.

• IPv6 address types you’ll typically see:

• Unique Local Addresses (ULAs)

• If an address begins with fdXX:… or fc00:…, place it under “Unique Local Address” (ULA).
• If it begins with 2000::/3, place it under “Global Unicast.”
• If it begins with fe80::, place it under “Link-local.”
• If it begins with ff00::, place it under “Multicast.”

• On-prem you generalize and capture the VM as a VHD.
• Upload the VHD to Azure with Add-AzVhd.
• Register the VHD as an image in Azure with Add-AzImage (or New-AzImage) so it appears as a selectable image.
• Create new VMs from that image (e.g., with New-AzVM -Image ...).

• Windows 10 VMs
• Windows Server 2012 or later VMs
• Running VMs—they do not need to be shut down
• Debian 8.2+ VMs, assuming the specific version is supported
• Stopped or deallocated VMs

powershell 
Get-AzureVM -ServiceName <service-name> -Name <vm-name> | 
  Set-AzureStaticVNetIP -IPAddress <private-ip> | 
  Update-AzureVM

• New-AzureRMVMConfig configures VM settings but does not itself assign the static IP.
• Set-AzureSubnet is not the appropriate cmdlet for assigning a VM’s private IP.
• The Azure portal option mentioned in the question was not the intended method for this older deployment model.
• Changing settings in Windows Network and Sharing Center is incorrect because Azure assigns the IP through the VM’s virtual network interface; manually configuring it inside the guest can cause conflicts.

• The stage has a default file format defined (e.g., when you create the stage with FILE_FORMAT = (...)), and Snowflake will use that default.

• You use a named file format attached to the stage, or you specify an inline format in the COPY command, e.g., COPY INTO my_table FROM @my_stage FILE_FORMAT = (TYPE = 'CSV');

• Use a stage default: omit FILE_FORMAT in COPY.
• Or rely on a named/inline format: specify FILE_FORMAT in COPY or set a format on the stage.

• A (training data, hyperparameters, stakeholder feedback) focuses on training provenance; these details are important but are typically part of pre-deployment/training records, not the primary post-deployment documentation.
• B (encountered issues, monitoring process, risks) relates to governance and monitoring rather than the core documentation you’d publish about the deployed model itself.
• C (licensing information, the team, business goals) covers governance context but not the technical traceability and performance-based record needed for ongoing maintenance.

• A — IDS attack signatures: An IDS generally detects suspicious network activity but does not necessarily scan uploaded PDF files or prevent them from being accepted.
• C — Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers; it does not inspect files for malware.
• D — WAF command-injection blocking: A WAF can help block web attacks such as command injection, SQL injection, and cross-site scripting, but this option does not specifically address malicious PDF uploads.

• A Storage Gateway File Gateway provides an on-premises NFS/SMB file share that's backed by objects in S3. This is exactly what you need to migrate an NFS workload: applications continue using NFS, while the actual data moves to and is stored in S3.
• It can cache frequently accessed data locally for performance, while uploads go to an S3 bucket.
• Why the other options aren’t suitable:

• What the goal is: You want to add guest (external) users to your Azure AD tenant contoso.com, one entry per external user in a CSV.

• The proposed solution uses New-AzureADUser for each external user. Why this isn’t correct: New-AzureADUser creates a regular (internal) user in your directory. It does not create a guest/B2B user invite. So you’d end up with 500 ordinary accounts, not guest accounts with external access.

• The correct approach: Use New-AzureADMSInvitation for each external user. This invites the external user to your directory and creates a guest user (a B2B collaboration user) in your tenant. The invited user then accepts the invitation and gains access as a guest.

• Azure AD vs directory/tenant: Azure AD is the cloud identity service. A directory (also called a tenant) is your specific instance of that service (contoso.com in your scenario). The terms are often used interchangeably in exams.
• Guest user vs internal user: A guest user is external to your organization; an internal user is created directly in your directory as a normal employee/user account.
• B2B invitation: The process of inviting external users so they can collaborate in your resources; New-AzureADMSInvitation is designed for this.

• Strongest encryption algorithms: Choose the strongest available encryption and integrity options, typically AES with the largest key size and a secure integrity algorithm.
• Encrypt all traffic: Select tunnel mode rather than transport mode. Tunnel mode encrypts the entire original IP packet, which is appropriate for a site-to-site VPN between branch networks.
• Secret-password authentication: Configure a pre-shared key (PSK) on both VPN concentrators. The key must match at both ends.

• S3 Versioning stores all versions of an object. If an object is overwritten or deleted, you can recover the previous version using its version ID.
• This protects against accidental deletion or overwriting because the original data remains accessible as an older version.
• How to enable:

• Practical notes:

• S3 Lifecycle rules: automate moving/expiring data, not specifically protection against deletion.
• S3 bucket policies: control access but don’t inherently preserve previous data.
• S3 server-side encryption: protects data at rest, not against deletion/overwrite.

• wyjasnic istniejace pytania z tej strony,
• wskazac, dlaczego dana odpowiedz jest poprawna lub bledna (z uwzglednieniem celów egzaminu),
• omówic koncepcje zwiazane z Google Cloud AI.

• Quick context: In a three-tier network (Access, Distribution, Core), roles are:

• Why A is correct: The Distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies. It often handles VLAN access (L2) and can perform inter-VLAN routing or connect to the core (L3). So it makes sense for the distribution layer to support both L2 and L3.

• Why B is correct: The Core layer is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail. It is built for high availability and redundancy, providing multiple paths so the network remains reachable even if some components fail.

• Why the others are not correct:

• Le rôle n’a pas de clés propres. Des identifiants temporaires (via STS) sont émis lorsque quelqu’un ou quelque chose « assume » le rôle.
• La trust policy déclare qui peut assumer le rôle (par ex. une instance EC2, un utilisateur IAM, ou un service comme Lambda).
• Une fois attaché à une ressource (par exemple comme un instance profile sur une EC2), l’application peut appeler les services AWS avec les permissions du rôle.

• Respect du principe du moindre privilège: on accorde uniquement ce qui est nécessaire.
• Pas de stockages de clés sur les instances; les credentials se renouvellent automatiquement.

• Rôles pour EC2, rôles pour Lambda, accès cross-compte, etc.

• A push endpoint behind a load balancer handles massive fan-in from many devices while distributing load across servers.
• A container cluster (e.g., Kubernetes) provides scalable, flexible processing for ingestion and orchestration of services.
• Cloud Pub/Sub enables durable, scalable streaming of the raw vehicle data to downstream analytics, making real-time/near-real-time analysis feasible for centralized querying by analysts.

• Vehicles push data to the endpoint (HTTP) behind a load balancer.
• Ingestion services run in a container cluster and publish data to Cloud Pub/Sub.
• Pub/Sub streams data to analytics processing (e.g., Dataflow) and storage (e.g., BigQuery) for central querying by analysts.

• They don’t provide scalable, real-time streaming ingestion and centralized querying at the required scale.

• A. Flash the BIOS: Not the first move. A BIOS update can be risky when POST is failing. It’s better to first rule out simpler causes (like RAM seating). BIOS flashing is usually done if the CPU isn’t supported by the current BIOS, which you’d check after RAM seating.

• B. Check the CMOS battery: Possible but unlikely the immediate cause. CMOS battery issues would more likely cause BIOS settings to reset or clock problems. RAM seating is a more common, direct fix after a motherboard swap.

• D. Reinstall the old motherboard: Not a troubleshooting step for the new system. The goal is to get the new motherboard to POST, not revert to old hardware.

• C. Reseat the RAM: Correct because memory seating problems are the most common cause of POST failures after a motherboard swap. Re-seating ensures proper contact in the new board’s slots.

• The Accrue liability on product receipt flag controls whether a liability is accrued and posted at the time of receiving the item.
• If this checkbox is unchecked, receipts won’t create postings to the Product receipt journal. Enabling it ensures the system posts inventory value and the vendor liability when the item is received.

• Go to the Item model group setup form.
• Enable (check) Accrue liability on product receipt.
• Save.

• The other option, Include physical value, affects how physical value is handled but is not the direct cause of postings to the product receipt journal. If issues persist after enabling accrual, you may need to verify related posting definitions or journal setup.

• Correct answer: All four statements are true (A, B, C, and D). The given key (A,B) is likely incorrect.

• A) Customers can change the size of the Warehouse after creation — Yes. You can resize a virtual warehouse after it’s created using ALTER WAREHOUSE ... SET WAREHOUSE_SIZE.
• B) A Warehouse can be resized while running — Yes. Snowflake supports online resizing; you can change the size without stopping queries.
• C) A Warehouse can be configured to suspend after a period of inactivity — Yes. You can enable auto-suspend with a delay (AUTO_SUSPEND).
• D) A Warehouse can be configured to auto-resume when new queries are submitted — Yes. You can enable auto-resume (AUTO_RESUME) so a suspended warehouse automatically resumes on new queries.

• Example commands:

• Even if a warehouse is resizing or auto-suspending, queries will be queued and then executed once the warehouse has the appropriate capacity.

• Answer: A

• Reason: The Standard web tier is the lowest tier that provides dedicated compute, built-in load balancing across instances, and sufficient storage to host multiple apps with custom domains. Basic may lack the required scalability/storage, while Free/Shared do not offer dedicated compute or proper load balancing.

• Correct answer: C: Amazon Comprehend.

• Why: The library wants to classify books based on their text content. This is an NLP (natural language processing) task. Amazon Comprehend is AWS’s managed NLP service that can perform content classification (including creating custom classifiers) and extract meaningful information from text. The other services are not focused on text classification:

• Quick note: In practice, you’d store the books in S3, extract text if needed (e.g., from PDFs with Textract), and then use Comprehend to classify the documents into topics or genres.

• 345 Patch management: 3.0 - Implementation
• 346 Obfuscation: 2.0 - Architecture and Design
• 347 Host isolation: 4.0 - Operations and Incident Response
• 348 IoT unencrypted traffic: 1.0 - Threats, Attacks and Vulnerabilities
• 349 Tabletop exercise: 4.0 - Operations and Incident Response
• 350 CVSS: 1.0 - Threats, Attacks and Vulnerabilities
• 351 Conflict of interest: 5.0 - Governance, Risk and Compliance
• 352 Fail-open (availability focus): 4.0 - Operations and Incident Response (can vary by version)

Why B works

• AWS KMS keys are Regional resources. A normal customer managed key in Region A cannot be used directly in Region B.
• A customer managed multi-Region KMS key (MRK) has related key replicas in both Regions. The replicas share key material and key ID, although each has a Regional ARN.
• With client-side encryption, the application encrypts the data before storing it in S3. Cross-Region replication then copies already-encrypted objects, so S3 does not need to decrypt and re-encrypt them with a different Regional key.

Why the other choices are weaker

• A and C: SSE-S3 uses Amazon-managed S3 keys, not the required customer managed KMS key.
• D: SSE-KMS can work only if the solution creates and configures the appropriate KMS key or multi-Region key replica in each Region. As written, it says to create a customer managed KMS key in each Region, which implies separate keys—not the same KMS key. Replication also requires additional KMS permissions and destination encryption configuration.

• B: Intégrez des résultats de due diligence tels que les évaluations de risque client.

• C: Utilisez des correspondants en aval pour enquêter et signaler les activités suspectes.

• Answer: D

• The strongest security comes from enforcing access at the storage layer. An IAM policy scoped to the Cognito identity prefix restricts each user to their own S3 prefix (folder), so users can only access their own files regardless of client or server code.
• This per-user isolation reduces risk of cross-user data access and is more robust than UI validation or Lambda/API validation alone.
• Implementation note: attach a policy to the Cognito identity role that allows actions on arn:aws:s3:::your-bucket/${cognito-identity.amazonaws.com:sub}/* (per-user prefix). Ensure TLS in transit and enable at-rest encryption (SSE-S3 or SSE-KMS). Use multipart upload for large files up to 300 MB.

• Answer: False. The page marks the answer as B, which corresponds to False.

• The Import Wizard in Salesforce is designed for importing a subset of objects, typically including Accounts, Contacts, Leads, and Campaign Members.
• Opportunities are not supported by the Import Wizard. To import Opportunity records, you should use Data Loader or the API (for larger volumes or more complex mappings).
• Practical tip: If you need to bring in opportunities, create or link to the related Account first, ensure required fields like StageName and CloseDate are included, and use Data Loader (or a similar tool) to insert or upsert the data.

• Review the risk register.
• Use the previously defined risk response plan, such as assigning a backup resource, reprioritizing work, or using another qualified engineer.
• Implement the response promptly because the task is on the critical path.

• B: Revising the schedule without first applying the planned response may be premature.
• C: Excluding a required task could compromise the project’s objectives and requirements.
• D: Updating the risk and lessons learned records is appropriate, but it should happen after managing the immediate issue, not as the next primary action.

• Disabling GPS: Affects location services, not email connectivity.
• Configuring 4G usage only: Does not enable international data access and could prevent connectivity if 4G is unavailable.
• Connecting using a hotspot: Could provide data, but it is not the most direct solution and depends on another network or device.

• The missing piece is to configure an event source mapping between the DynamoDB stream and the Lambda function. Enabling DynamoDB Streams alone doesn’t trigger the function—you must wire the stream to Lambda so events invoke the function.
• Note that changing StreamViewType (A) only affects what data is delivered (e.g., NEW_IMAGE) and does not trigger invocations. Options C and D are not required for invocation: you don’t need SNS, and increasing the timeout won’t enable the trigger.

• The requirement: SQL authentication cannot be used for any databases on Server1, and the solution must be enforced centrally at the server level.
• Correct choice (C): Enable Microsoft Entra-only authentication for Server1.

• Why not the others:

• The Well-Architected Framework has five pillars: Operational Excellence, Security, Reliability, Performance Efficiency, and Cost Optimization.
• Operational Excellence: how you run and improve your systems—monitoring, incident response, and evolving processes.
• Reliability: the ability of a workload to recover from failures, maintain uptime, and scale as demand changes.

• Availability (A) is not a pillar name; it’s an outcome that relates to Reliability.
• Scalability (C) isn’t a pillar name; scalability touches on Performance Efficiency.
• Responsive design (D) is not a pillar in the Well-Architected Framework.