CIPS L3M3 Exam Prep
Contract Administration (Page 6 )

• A. Continue using the current system: It will eventually fail and offers no recovery strategy.
• B. Virtualize the entire system: Correct. A VM can preserve the old OS, application, settings, and dependencies while running on newer physical hardware.
• C. Containerize the application: Containers generally share the host OS kernel and are not suitable for preserving an entire incompatible legacy OS.
• D. Clone the disks to USB: A disk clone may provide backup or temporary recovery, but it does not solve hardware compatibility or provide a reliable long-term platform.

• Static IP address: Not needed if the workstation already has network connectivity.
• Subnet mask: Incorrect subnetting would usually prevent local communication, including pinging the server.
• Default gateway: Primarily affects communication outside the local network; it does not normally prevent finding an internal domain controller.

1. The specific table — for example, incident
2. The parent table — for example, task
3. The wildcard table — *, which applies broadly

• A business-hours greeting
• An after-hours greeting
• A holiday greeting

• Weekday evenings/nights
• Saturdays and Sundays

1. Auto attendant 1

1. Auto attendant 2

• Note the question number before leaving—for example, Question 38.
• Use the exam’s question navigator or Back/Previous button to return to that number.
• If you close or refresh the page, your position may not be saved, depending on the site. Reopen the page and select the question number again.
• Avoid using the browser’s Back button if it causes the exam page to reload; use the exam’s built-in navigation instead.

• Accept: Acknowledging the risk and choosing not to take additional action.
• Transfer: Shifting the risk or financial consequences to another party, such as an insurer.
• Mitigate: Reducing the likelihood or impact through controls, such as patching or access restrictions.
• Avoid: Eliminating the activity that creates the risk.

• Which host first communicated with the suspected malicious source
• Whether that host initiated suspicious traffic or merely received it
• Which other hosts show evidence of infection, such as connections from the originating host
• Which hosts have no related suspicious activity and are therefore clean

• An outbound connection to a suspicious external address
• A downloaded or executed malicious file
• Later lateral connections from that host to other internal systems
• Firewall logs showing the direction and timing of the traffic

• Periodic vulnerability assessments: Identify technical weaknesses but do not establish governance or ensure risks are managed.
• Established information security metrics: Help measure performance and report status, but measurement alone does not make governance effective.
• Advanced security technologies: Support security operations, but governance is primarily about direction, accountability, decision-making, and alignment with business objectives.

• Training or coaching
• Mentoring
• Additional support or resources
• Targeted performance improvement plans

• A: Recognition may be appropriate, but awards do not address identified gaps.
• C: Rotating schedules does not necessarily improve the specific competencies that are missing.
• D: Assessment results should be handled sensitively, but keeping them entirely private prevents useful feedback and development discussions.

• Unsafe images: Requires image/content moderation before the image is processed.
• Hidden instructions embedded in images: These are indirect prompt injections contained in untrusted image content or extracted text, not necessarily in the user’s typed prompt.

• Managerial: policies, standards, risk management, governance
• Operational: procedures carried out by people, such as training, incident response, and backups
• Technical: firewalls, encryption, access-control systems
• Physical: locks, guards, cameras

• S3 Glacier Deep Archive is designed for long-term archival data with very infrequent access and has a lower storage cost than S3 One Zone-IA.
• The documents are copies stored elsewhere, so reduced availability and delayed retrieval are acceptable.
• An S3 interface VPC endpoint allows private access from the VPC without exposing the bucket through the public internet.
• A bucket policy can restrict access to requests coming through that endpoint.

• Feedback form: Captures opinions, not necessarily actual behavior; users may not respond.
• Questionnaire: Relies on memory and subjective judgments about usefulness.
• Interviews: Can provide valuable qualitative insights, but a sample of users may not represent overall usage accurately.

• C — Before update
• D — Before insert

apex 
trigger AccountTrigger on Account (before insert, before update) { 
    for (Account acct : Trigger.new) { 
        acct.Description = 'Updated automatically'; 
    } 
}

• In after insert and after update, Trigger.new records are read-only.
• Use after triggers when you need the record’s final database Id or want to create/update related records.
• Attempting to change a field directly in an after trigger causes a read-only error.

• Customer needs: Primary focus in agile; guides prioritization and decision-making.
• Organization’s needs: Important constraints, but processes should be tailored when they create waste.
• Agile lead/project manager: Their role is to facilitate value delivery, not prioritize their own preferences.

• Operating profit is affected because transfer price determines internal sales revenue.
• Return on investment (ROI) is affected because ROI depends partly on operating profit.
• Sales revenue is affected because the division records revenue from transferring its output.
• Cost of components purchased is not affected by the transfer price. These are input costs paid to external suppliers and are based on the supplier’s price.

Statement 1 — Correct

Statement 2 — Correct

• CHAP: Uses a challenge-response exchange, so the password is not directly transmitted.
• IPsec: Provides authentication, integrity, and encryption for IP communications.
• EAP: An authentication framework that supports stronger methods, such as certificates or token-based authentication.

• Frequency/likelihood = how often or how likely the risk is to occur.
• Severity/impact = how damaging or costly the consequences would be.

• A minor equipment fault occurring frequently may have high frequency but low severity.
• A major cyberattack occurring rarely may have low frequency but high severity.
• A risk that happens often and causes substantial losses has high frequency and high severity.

1. Install a Cassandra-compatible ODBC driver.
2. Configure a data source name (DSN), if required.
3. In Power BI Desktop, select Get Data > ODBC.
4. Choose the configured DSN and connect.

• Microsoft SQL Server database: Connects to SQL Server, not Cassandra.
• OLE DB: Requires a compatible OLE DB provider; this is not the standard choice for Cassandra in Power BI.
• OData: Requires Cassandra data to be exposed through an OData service, which is not the normal direct connection method.

• Customer information must not be revealed ? PII Detection
• Malicious instructions embedded in images/documents must be blocked ? Prompt Shields

• If the question allows multiple selections, choose PII Detection and Prompt Shields.
• If it requires one selection specifically for the image-based threat, choose Prompt Shields.

1. Append Table1 and Table2 as a new query

1. Select the product column in the appended query.

1. Choose Remove Rows > Remove Duplicates

• The message came from the claimed sender (authentication)
• The message was not altered in transit (integrity)
• The sender cannot easily deny having signed and sent it (non-repudiation)

• Compliance standards: May be a reason in some organizations, but it is not the primary security benefit.
• Increase delivery rates: Digital signatures do not generally improve email delivery.
• Block phishing attacks: Signatures can help recipients verify legitimate messages, but they do not block phishing by themselves.

• Confirming the data has the required columns and data types
• Handling missing or duplicate records
• Converting data into a suitable format
• Selecting or engineering useful features
• Splitting it into training, validation, and test sets

1. Prepare the training data
2. Select an algorithm or configure AutoML
3. Train the model
4. Evaluate its performance
5. Tune hyperparameters if needed
6. Deploy the model

• Suspended an operator who refused to use unsafe equipment.
• Paid another operator a bonus for using it.
• Prioritised short-term productivity over employee safety.

• A — Management is not particularly concerned with managing risks.

• B — Employees will perceive that management does not care about health and safety risks.

• C — The factory’s safety record is likely to be poor.

• desktopwidth:i:1280
• desktopheight:i:1024

• Connection information: Controls connection-related settings, not the desktop resolution.
• Scaling plan: Controls when session hosts start, stop, or scale based on demand.
• Session behaviour: Controls behavior such as disconnect or logoff handling.
• Display settings: Specifically controls RDP display properties, making it the appropriate choice.

• Insert is used when you are creating a new record. It saves the record to the table and then leaves the form.
• Update is used when editing an existing record. It saves the modifications and then leaves the form.

• B: Não é preciso implantar o modelo em um endpoint do Amazon SageMaker, pois o Bedrock já oferece a infraestrutura de inferência.
• C: O SageMaker Model Registry é usado para gerenciar modelos no SageMaker, não é requisito para modelos customizados no Bedrock.
• D: Não existe uma etapa geral de “conceder acesso” ao modelo customizado como requisito principal de uso. O ponto essencial é adquirir o Provisioned Throughput.

• GPS coordinates
• Date and time the image was taken
• Camera or device model
• Exposure settings

• Log data: Records events or activities, such as system or application activity.
• Encrypted data: Information intentionally encoded to prevent unauthorized access.
• Sensitive data: A broad classification for information requiring protection; geolocation may be sensitive, but the technical type stored in the image is metadata.

• Employees can work from any location, including remote sites and offices worldwide.
• Login can be relatively seamless after the device is registered.
• It does not require distributing additional physical authentication equipment.

• Geotagging: Identifies location, but location alone is not a strong authentication method and may prevent legitimate remote access.
• Smart cards: Provide strong authentication but require card readers and physical cards, increasing equipment and management requirements.
• Time-based logins: Typically involve one-time codes that users must enter, making the experience less seamless and potentially requiring a token or authenticator app.

• Suporta domínios personalizados.
• Oferece 50 GB de armazenamento — suficiente para os 10 GB de cada aplicação.
• Usa instâncias de computação dedicadas.
• Inclui balanceamento de carga entre instâncias.
• É o plano mais econômico entre as opções que atendem a todos esses requisitos.

• Unfamiliar locations or IP addresses
• Anonymous or malicious IP addresses
• Leaked credentials
• Unusual sign-in behavior

• Sustainability
• Performance efficiency
• Reliability

• Ramen is a Linux worm associated with Red Hat Linux 6.2 and 7.0 systems.
• It spreads by scanning randomly generated IP addresses using tools such as synscan.
• It exploits vulnerable network services, including web-related services, and may leave malicious files or altered web content.
• The tar.gz file is also a clue because it is a common Linux archive/package format.

• Code Red: Primarily targeted Microsoft IIS servers running Windows.
• LoveLetter: Spread mainly through email attachments.
• Nimda: A Windows-based worm that spread through email, web servers, and network shares.

• Menerjemahkan soal ke bahasa Indonesia.
• Menyebutkan jawaban yang benar.
• Menjelaskan alasan jawaban tersebut.
• Memberi tahu jika kunci jawaban yang tersedia tampaknya keliru.
• Menjelaskan istilah teknis penting dalam soal.

• JDBC
• SnowSQL
• Snowflake Web Interface (UI)
• ODBC
• Python connector

• Identifies which user or department owns the device
• Supports inventory and compliance requirements
• Enables tracking of lost, stolen, retired, or unauthorized devices
• Helps enforce security controls such as mobile-device management and secure configuration

• Power BI dataset — Reuses the existing tables, relationships, and measures. You mainly create new visualizations.
• SharePoint folder — Connects to the source files, but you would need to rebuild the model and measures.
• Power BI dataflows — Primarily provide reusable data preparation; they do not automatically provide the existing report’s measures and model.
• Excel workbook — Requires reconnecting to and modeling the source data again.

• terraform init is normally required first, especially for a new or changed working directory. It installs providers/modules and configures the backend.
• terraform plan previews the proposed changes.
• terraform apply applies those changes. It also creates a plan internally if you have not supplied a saved plan.

text 
terraform init 
terraform validate       # optional but recommended 
terraform plan 
terraform apply

• A — Correct: Identify the data required by Salesforce, its dependencies, and how it should be validated. Verification scripts help confirm record counts, relationships, field mappings, and data integrity after migration.
• D — Correct: Use a full sandbox and perform trial migrations using realistic—or appropriately masked—legacy data. This exposes transformation, volume, dependency, and integration issues before production cutover.
• B — Less appropriate: Phased user migration and parallel operation primarily address user adoption and rollout risk, not the technical risks of data migration.
• C — Less appropriate: Although sandbox testing and integration testing are valuable, the option emphasizes test-data generation rather than validating the migration with representative legacy data. “A full sandbox for all systems” may also be impractical.

• Understating expenses and liabilities
• Overstating profit
• Misleading users of the financial information
• Potentially breaching integrity, objectivity, and professional competence and due care

• IaaS: You deploy and manage virtual machines, including the operating system and installed software. Azure manages the physical datacenter, hosts, and networking infrastructure.
• PaaS: Azure manages the infrastructure and operating system, while you deploy and manage your application code. Examples include Azure App Service and Azure Functions.

• Configure row-level security (RLS) using the sales region and the HR manager’s identity.
• Publish the reports and datasets through a Power BI app.
• Grant the HR managers permission to use the app, but do not add them as workspace members.
• App users can view and interact with reports while RLS limits them to their region.
• They cannot modify the report layout because they do not have workspace editing permissions.

• Adding them to the workspace gives them workspace permissions that may allow report or dataset changes, depending on the assigned role.
• Creating copies is unnecessary and creates maintenance and security problems.
• Hosting datasets and reports in different workspaces does not, by itself, provide the required controlled access.

• A — Windows 11 with Azure CLI installed: Yes

• D — Chrome OS using Azure Cloud Shell: Yes

• E — Windows 10 with the Azure PowerShell module installed: Yes

• B — Linux with only Azure CLI: No, because the option does not state that PowerShell is installed.
• C — macOS with PowerShell Core only: No, because it does not state that Azure PowerShell modules or Azure CLI are installed.

• Suspended an operator who correctly refused to use unsafe equipment.
• Rewarded another operator for using the equipment despite the broken safety guard.

• A — Management is not particularly concerned with managing risks.

• B — Employees will perceive that management does not care about health and safety risks.

• C — This factory’s safety record is likely to be poor.

• Controlar o fluxo de dados entre S3 e SageMaker;
• Aplicar regras de segurança por meio da VPC;
• Reduzir a exposição dos dados;
• Permitir acesso privado ao bucket do S3.

• Amazon Inspector: avalia vulnerabilidades, mas não gerencia o fluxo de dados.
• Amazon Macie: ajuda a descobrir e proteger dados sensíveis no S3, mas não cria a conexão com o SageMaker.
• S3 Glacier Deep Archive: é uma classe de armazenamento para arquivamento, não uma solução de conectividade.

• Microsoft Purview portal: Create and manage sensitivity labels and configure support for sensitivity labels used with Office files in SharePoint and OneDrive.
• SharePoint admin center: Primarily manages SharePoint settings. Older guidance and PowerShell procedures used SharePoint tenant configuration, which can make this question confusing.
• IRM: Concerns Information Rights Management and is a separate protection mechanism; it should not be used to identify the portal for configuring Microsoft Purview sensitivity labels.

• Recovery Services vault — stores Site Recovery configuration and recovery metadata.
• Hyper-V site — represents the on-premises Hyper-V environment.
• Azure virtual network — the target network where the replicated VM will run after failover. Since Azure VMs already use the same virtual network, that VNet can be selected as the target.
• Storage account or managed-disk target, depending on the ASR configuration and portal version.
• Provider/agent on the Hyper-V server — enables replication from Hyper-V to Azure.

• Install unauthorized or unsupported software
• Access features blocked by the manufacturer or operating system
• Customize system behavior beyond normal settings

• B — Notify affected business units: Notification should follow an initial determination of scope and impact; otherwise, the organization may communicate incomplete or inaccurate requirements.
• C — Assess noncompliance risk: Risk assessment requires understanding the regulation’s requirements first.
• D — Inform senior management: Management should be informed, but with a clear summary of the regulation’s impact, risks, and recommended actions.