College Board PSAT READING Exam Prep
Preliminary Scholastic Aptitude Test - Reading (Page 20 )

• The listener uses a virtual IP address shared by the availability-group replicas.
• Floating IP, also called Direct Server Return (DSR), allows the SQL Server nodes to respond using the listener’s IP address rather than their individual VM IP addresses.
• This is required for the availability-group listener to function correctly with an Azure internal load balancer.

• Admin access to the deployment pipeline
• Contributor access to the Development and Test workspaces
• Viewer access to the Production workspace

• Partners first log in to the corporate portal, which uses the shared SAML Identity Provider.
• When they select a Salesforce link, the IdP can send a SAML assertion directly to Salesforce.
• Salesforce validates the assertion and grants access to the Partner Community without requiring another login. This is IdP-initiated SSO because authentication begins outside Salesforce.

• SP-initiated SSO starts when Salesforce sends an authentication request to the IdP. That would be appropriate if users began by visiting Salesforce.
• The Web Server and User Agent OAuth flows are for OAuth authorization, not browser-based SAML federation between an IdP and Salesforce.

• Data source: Folder
• Transformation: Remove the Content column (or keep only the file-metadata columns)

Why

• File name
• Extension
• Date modified
• Folder path
• Content — the binary contents of the file

• /27 (255.255.255.224)

• /26 (255.255.255.192)

• /25: Creates only 2 subnets, not 3
• /28: Provides only 14 usable hosts per subnet

• A — Use getRecordTypeInfosByDeveloperName()

apex 
  Id rtId = Schema.SObjectType.Account 
      .getRecordTypeInfosByDeveloperName() 
      .get('Business_Account') 
      .getRecordTypeId();

• C — Query the RecordType object

apex 
  RecordType rt = [ 
      SELECT Id 
      FROM RecordType 
      WHERE SObjectType = 'Account' 
      AND Name = 'Business Account' 
      LIMIT 1 
  ];

• B: An outbound SOAP call is unnecessary and inefficient.
• D: Hardcoding an ID is not dynamic, and IDs can differ between orgs.

• User1 (user1@contoso.com) — This is an external guest in the Fabrikam tenant. Assuming the guest uses email one-time passcode authentication, Azure AD emails a passcode to user1@contoso.com.
• User2 (user2@outlook.com) — An Outlook.com address can authenticate with a Microsoft account, so Azure AD uses that account’s authentication rather than sending an email OTP. The fact that User2 has never accessed Fabrikam resources does not by itself trigger OTP.
• User3 (user3@fabrikam.com) — This is an internal Fabrikam user, so the user signs in with the organization’s normal credentials and does not receive a guest OTP.

• # Development
• # Testing
• # Production

• Separate endpoints: relate to compute or connectivity, not dashboard labels.
• Separate queries: retrieve or transform data but do not designate visual sections.
• Direct text written into the dashboard in editing mode: dashboards use text boxes, typically with Markdown formatting, rather than arbitrary text placed directly on the canvas.

• Unrestricted data mining: Data mining is not automatically a privacy violation. It becomes an issue when personal data is collected or used improperly.
• Identity theft: This is a possible consequence of inadequate privacy protection, but it is not the central focus of privacy regulations.
• Human rights protection: Privacy can be considered a human right, but this option is broader than the specific regulatory focus.
• Identifiable personal data: Regulations such as HIPAA focus directly on controlling the collection, use, disclosure, and protection of personal information.

• Domain controllers, because the requirement specifically excludes them. However, note that both member servers and domain controllers run Windows Server, so OS targeting alone cannot distinguish them unless the targeting option allows selecting the relevant server role/version. In the usual exam interpretation, target the applicable server OS category.
• Client computers, because they run a client Windows operating system.

• Domain: Targets membership in a domain, not the computer’s operating-system type.
• Security Group: Would require creating and maintaining a group containing all member servers, increasing administrative effort.
• Environment Variable: Not designed to reliably identify member servers.

• The users currently have Office 365 Enterprise E3 licenses assigned directly.
• Assigning Microsoft 365 Enterprise E5 through a group does not automatically remove their directly assigned E3 licenses.
• From the Licenses blade, you can select the E3 product and remove it from all assigned users in one operation. This requires less effort than editing 2,500 users individually.

• Identity Governance manages access reviews, entitlement management, and related governance—not bulk license removal.
• Set-AzureAdUser does not remove product licenses.
• Set-WindowsProductKey applies Windows product keys and is unrelated to Microsoft 365 licensing.

• GPS coordinates
• Date and time the image was taken
• Camera or device information
• Image dimensions and software used

• Log data: Records generated by systems or applications, not normally embedded in image files.
• Encrypted data: Information intentionally encoded to prevent unauthorized access.
• Sensitive data: A broad classification, not the specific type of information being extracted.

• Leaf switches provide access ports for servers, users, and other devices.
• Spine switches provide the backbone between leaf switches.
• Every leaf switch connects to every spine switch, creating a predictable, full-mesh fabric between the two layers.
• Leaf switches do not connect directly to other leaf switches, and spine switches do not connect directly to other spine switches.

• A: Adding both a spine and leaf is unnecessary for simply adding access ports.
• B: It focuses on uplink speed, not the scalable topology.
• D: A single spine connection creates a bottleneck and a single point of failure.

• Endpoint Manager: manages hosts and sensor-related settings.
• Falcon Investigator: supports investigation and analysis, but does not necessarily grant RTR access.
• Remediation Manager: handles remediation-related actions rather than interactive host access.

• state preserves the client’s original context, such as the specific idea URL the user requested.
• The portal sends that value in the OAuth authorization request.
• Salesforce returns it after authorization, allowing the portal to redirect the user to the original idea rather than the Ideas home page.

• A: Concerns task scheduling and avoiding missed runs, not directly sizing the warehouse.
• B: The amount of data in a stream alone does not reliably determine compute needs; the SQL processing is what matters.
• D: A multi-cluster warehouse addresses concurrency, not the compute size needed for one task execution.

• Penetration test: Tests for exploitable vulnerabilities; it does not provide a broad opinion on whether security controls operate effectively.
• Annual self-assessment: Not independent, so it provides less assurance.
• Allow each client the right to audit: Inefficient because every customer may conduct a separate audit, creating duplicated effort and disruption.

apex 
for (Account updatedAccount : Trigger.new) { 
    AccountTriggerHelper.notinyxternalSystem(updatedAccount.Id); 
}

• Too many callouts: The callout occurs asynchronously in the future method, and each future transaction can perform its permitted callouts.
• Too many SOQL queries: The SOQL query is inside the future execution, not repeatedly in the trigger transaction.
• Callout from triggers not supported: Direct callouts from triggers are prohibited, but the trigger delegates the callout to asynchronous Apex, which is the correct pattern.

• VPC: A logically isolated virtual network within a cloud provider; it describes network design, not the user-access model.
• NFV: Runs network services as software instead of on dedicated hardware.
• SaaS: Delivers software over the internet. Although the application may be delivered as SaaS, the question emphasizes its availability to multiple user groups, which points to multitenancy.

• 25 — Traditional SMTP server-to-server mail delivery; often restricted and not the usual client submission port.
• 110 — POP3, used for retrieving email; normally unencrypted.
• 143 — IMAP, used for retrieving and synchronizing email; normally unencrypted.

1. Clear principles and boundaries — Employees have freedom, but decisions must remain within clear organizational values, policies and limits.
2. High degree of freedom — Managers are trusted to make decisions rather than seeking continual approval from senior management.
3. Frontline customer responsibility — Customer-facing managers should be empowered to manage customer relationships and respond quickly to needs.
4. Transparent and ethical information — Information should be openly available and used honestly, supporting trust and informed decision-making.

• Response and resolution times
• Availability or uptime
• Performance targets
• Support obligations
• Penalties for failing to meet commitments

• SOW (Statement of Work): Describes the work, deliverables, scope, and tasks.
• MOA (Memorandum of Agreement): Documents a formal agreement about roles or responsibilities.
• MOU (Memorandum of Understanding): Records a general mutual understanding, often without detailed service metrics.

• Set credit quotas for an account or individual virtual warehouses.
• Define monitoring intervals.
• Trigger actions when usage reaches thresholds, such as sending notifications or suspending a warehouse.
• Help control unexpected warehouse spending.

• Account Usage: Provides historical usage and billing data; it does not enforce credit limits.
• Warehouse Limit Parameter: Not the Snowflake object used for account-wide credit controls.
• Credit Consumption Tracker: Not a standard Snowflake object.

• Technical platform interfaces: Important for integration and interoperability, but they should support—not drive—the architecture.
• Scalability of the network: Valuable as the organization grows, but a scalable solution is ineffective if it does not meet business or security needs.
• Development methodologies: Relevant to implementation, but they do not define the organization’s fundamental security requirements.

Correct sequence

1. Merge Sales_Region with Sales_Manager using an inner join

1. Merge Region_Manager with Manager using an inner join

1. Merge Sales_Region and Region_Manager using a right join as a new query

• Outer packet: 10.5.1.1 > 52.165.16.154
• IPv4 protocol field: 41, which indicates IPv6 encapsulation
• Inner packet: IPv6 traffic between 2001:... addresses

• MAC address spoofing: Changes Layer 2 addressing; it does not explain the IPv6-in-IPv4 structure.
• Steganography: Hides data inside files or media, not visibly in a tunneled protocol.
• Broken encryption: No evidence of encryption being cracked.
• On-path sniffing: Involves intercepting traffic, not sending data to an external host.

• A — Technical review by business owner: A business owner may approve the business impact, but a technical review is normally performed by technical personnel.
• C — Cost-benefit analysis after implementation: Cost-benefit analysis should occur before implementation to support the approval decision.
• D — Business continuity testing: This can be appropriate for major changes, but it is primarily part of business continuity and disaster recovery planning—not a universal change-management activity.

• Microsoft manages the physical datacenter, hardware, and virtualization.
• You manage the virtual machine’s operating system, installed software, configuration, and data.
• You choose the VM size, storage, networking, and scaling options.

• SaaS: You consume a complete application managed by the provider, such as Microsoft 365.
• PaaS: You deploy applications without managing the underlying operating system or VM infrastructure, such as Azure App Service.

• Determining ISP-assigned address space: Usually involves public reconnaissance, such as WHOIS or regional Internet registry information.
• Bypassing DNS sinkholing: Would require evidence that malicious domains are resolving outside the organization’s sinkhole controls.
• Achieving initial access: DNS log entries alone do not demonstrate compromise or entry.
• Exfiltrating data: DNS tunneling generally involves repeated queries containing encoded or unusually long data, not merely internal host discovery.

• \Pipeline1
• \Folder1\Lakehouse1

• Pipeline1 remains at the workspace root in Workspace1, so it is deployed to the root of Workspace2.
• Lakehouse1 was moved into Folder1, so its full path is preserved as \Folder1\Lakehouse1.
• Fabric deployment pipelines preserve folder paths because an item’s full path is treated as part of its name.

• Who owns security risks and decisions
• Who is responsible for implementing controls
• Who reports security performance to management
• How security responsibilities align with business objectives

• B — Compliance with audit requirements: Governance may support compliance, but audit compliance is not its main objective.
• C — Monitoring security incidents: This is an operational security activity, not the central purpose of governance.
• D — Creation of tactical solutions: Governance establishes direction and oversight; tactical solutions belong to management and operational teams.

• Espionage: Stealing confidential information, often for a competitor or foreign entity.
• Data exfiltration: Unauthorized removal or transfer of data.
• Nation-state attack: A cyberattack sponsored or conducted by a government.
• Shadow IT: Unapproved technology or services used outside IT oversight.

• Default route: 0.0.0.0/0; used only when no more specific route exists.
• Network route: A route covering the destination, such as 10.10.13.0/24.
• Host route: An exact 10.10.13.10/32 entry in the routing table.
• Floating static route: A backup static route with a higher administrative distance.

• B — The most significant risks are held by SQ.

• C — SQ should recognise the cars as inventory.

• F — SQ recognises revenue when LM sells a car to a third party.

• A: LM does not hold the most significant risks.
• D: LM does not recognise the cars as inventory.
• E: SQ should not recognise revenue when cars are merely delivered to LM.

• Amazon EC2 instances — ???????? ?? ?? ??????? CPU, memory ??? instance size ???????? ???????
• AWS Lambda functions — memory configuration ?????????? ???????
• Amazon EBS volumes — volume type ?? size optimize ???? ???????
• ??????? ECS workloads — resource configuration ? cost optimization-?? ???????

• Memory ? compute usage ?????????? ???? custom code ????? ???? development ? maintenance ??????
• Cost allocation tags ???? ????? ??? ?????? ???? ??????? ???; inefficient resource ??????? ?? recommendation ???? ???
• CloudTrail resource ???? ?? API activity ??????, resource utilization ????

• Proxy server: Acts as an intermediary for requests, but does not necessarily provide an encrypted connection to the corporate network.
• NGFW: A firewall with advanced inspection and filtering capabilities; it may support VPNs but is not the remote-access solution itself.
• Security zone: A logical network grouping based on trust or security requirements, not a method for remote access.

1. The original app version exists.
2. You create and publish a new version, so there are now two versions.
3. When you restore the previous version, Power Apps does not delete or overwrite the newer version. Instead, it creates another version based on the restored one.

• Original version
• Newly created and published version
• New version created by the restore operation

• MFA adds an additional authentication factor, such as a phone notification or verification code.
• It helps prevent unauthorized sign-ins, even if a password is compromised.
• It does not encrypt, store, or protect credentials used by deployment processes.

• File hashes
• Strings and metadata
• Binary or code structure
• Known malicious patterns
• Embedded indicators or signatures

• Sandbox: Executes the file in an isolated environment; useful for observing behavior, but usually slower.
• Network traffic analysis: Examines communications generated by a system or application, not the file itself.
• Package monitoring: Tracks software packages or installations and is not the primary method for examining malware signatures.

• Packet loss
• Latency
• Jitter
• Call quality by user, device, network, location, or building

• Teams Usage Report: Shows adoption and usage statistics, not detailed call-quality metrics.
• Teams Device Usage Report: Reports which devices are being used and how, but does not provide detailed packet-loss analysis.
• Microsoft Network Testing Companion: Helps assess network readiness before deployment, but it is not the primary tool for analyzing packet loss from actual Teams calls.

1. The specific table — for example, incident
2. The parent table — for example, task
3. The wildcard table — *, which applies broadly

• The S3 bucket as an origin for static content
• The Application Load Balancer (ALB) as an origin for dynamic content
• An Amazon Route 53 alias record pointing the application domain to CloudFront

Why this works

• Static data: CloudFront caches objects from S3 at edge locations, reducing latency for users worldwide.
• Dynamic data: CloudFront forwards requests that require application processing to the ALB. It can also maintain persistent connections and use the AWS global edge network to improve delivery performance.
• One domain: CloudFront behaviors can route different path patterns to different origins—for example, /static/* to S3 and other paths to the ALB.

Why the other options are incorrect

• Global Accelerator is designed primarily for accelerating traffic to applications with endpoints such as ALBs, not for caching S3 content.
• Using separate domains or splitting static and dynamic traffic adds unnecessary complexity.
• CloudFront already provides the required global edge distribution and caching, so combining it with Global Accelerator is unnecessary here.

• Sustainability
• Performance efficiency
• Reliability

• Transport and handling
• Storage and warehousing
• Refrigeration
• Shelf-stacking or replenishment
• Other costs directly attributable to product P

• Two-part tariff pricing: $10 per unit
• Dual pricing: $20 per unit

Two-part tariff pricing

Dual pricing

• Division X, the seller, is credited with the market price: \(\$20\)
• Division Y, the buyer, is charged the marginal cost: \(\$10\)

• Regression predicts continuous numeric outcomes, such as house price, temperature, or sales amount.
• Linear regression assumes the target can be estimated from a linear relationship between the input features and the target.
• In Azure Machine Learning, you use a labeled dataset containing:

• Classification predicts a category or class, such as “spam” or “not spam.”
• Clustering groups similar records without a known label; it is an unsupervised learning technique.

• Deterrent control: The signs warning people they may be filmed discourage unauthorized or malicious behavior. They may prevent incidents by influencing behavior, but their primary purpose is to deter.
• Detective control: The CCTV system monitors and records activity so security personnel can identify suspicious or unauthorized actions.

• Preventive: Blocks or prevents an incident, such as a lock or access-control system.
• Corrective: Fixes or restores systems after an incident.
• Directive: Tells people what they must do, typically through policies or procedures.
• Compensating: Provides an alternative control when the preferred control cannot be used.

• Filtering harmful or inappropriate content
• Blocking specified topics
• Detecting and masking sensitive information
• Enforcing content policies suitable for children

• Amazon Rekognition analyzes images and videos; it does not control text generated by a language model.
• Amazon Bedrock playgrounds are for testing models and prompts, not enforcing production safety policies.
• Agents for Amazon Bedrock help models complete tasks and use tools; they do not primarily provide content-safety controls.

• PC A: 192.168.1.10/24
• PC B: 192.168.2.10/24

• Both PCs have a correct default gateway
• A router or Layer 3 switch connects the subnets
• Routing and firewall rules allow the traffic

1. Discovery tries the SSH probe first.
2. SSH fails.
3. Discovery tries SNMP, which succeeds.
4. Discovery records SNMP as the preferred service for that IP.
5. Future discoveries try SNMP first.

• Classification identifies the type of device, such as a server, router, or printer.
• Credential affinity remembers which credentials work for a device.
• MID Server affinity associates a device or network with a particular MID Server.
• IP service affinity specifically controls the preferred discovery protocol or service.