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CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-003) Questions 113–120 (page: 16)

Updated On: 7-Jun-2026

Which of the following is the most important factor to ensure accurate incident response reporting?

  1. A well-defined timeline of the events
  2. A guideline for regulatory reporting
  3. Logs from the impacted system
  4. A well-developed executive summary

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Option A is correct because a well-defined timeline of events is critical for accurate incident response reporting, enabling precise reconstruction, sequence analysis, and attribution of impact and actions taken.
A) Correct — A clear timeline establishes the chronological order of events, evidentiary sequencing, and helps verify the incident’s scope and containment steps.
B) Incorrect — Regulatory reporting guidelines may influence disclosure requirements but do not ensure technical accuracy of incident sequencing.
C) Incorrect — Logs are essential data sources, but without a defined timeline, their sequence and interpretation can be misrepresented.
D) Incorrect — An executive summary communicates conclusions, not the factual causality and incident chronology needed for accurate reporting.



A security analyst is trying to detect connections to a suspicious IP address by collecting the packet captures from the gateway. Which of the following commands should the security analyst consider running?

  1. grep [IP address] packets.pcap
  2. cat packets.pcap | grep [IP Address]
  3. tcpdump -n -r packets.pcap host [IP address]
  4. strings packets.pcap | grep [IP Address]

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Option C is correct because it reads a pcap file and filters for traffic to or from the specified IP using a network-aware filter, ensuring proper interpretation of packet data without altering the capture. A and B: using grep on a pcap file treats it as plain text, which corrupts the data and yields unreliable results because pcap is binary; not suitable for precise host filtering. D: strings on a pcap file may extract readable text but does not reliably reflect IP-level traffic or connections, leading to false negatives/positives. Therefore, C provides proper offline analysis of the captured traffic.



A security analyst reviews the latest vulnerability scans and observes there are vulnerabilities with similar CVSSv3 scores but different base score metrics. Which of the following attack vectors should the analyst remediate first?

  1. CVSS:3.0/AV:P/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H
  2. CVSS:3.0/AV:A/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H
  3. CVSS:3.0/AV:N/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H
  4. CVSS:3.0/AV:L/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Option C is correct because AV:N (network access) indicates the vulnerability can be exploited remotely over the network, presenting the highest exploitability among the options and thus prioritizing remediation when CVSS base scores are similar.
A) Incorrect — AV:P indicates physical access is required, lowering exploitability compared to network-exposed flaws.
B) Incorrect — AV:A signifies adjacent network access, which is less severe than full network access (AV:N).
D) Incorrect — AV:L denotes local access, requiring local presence, making it the least exploitable among the options.


Reference:

https://www.first.org/cvss/specification-document



A security analyst must review a suspicious email to determine its legitimacy. Which of the following should be performed? (Choose two.)

  1. Evaluate scoring fields, such as Spam Confidence Level and Bulk Complaint Level
  2. Review the headers from the forwarded email
  3. Examine the recipient address field
  4. Review the Content-Type header
  5. Evaluate the HELO or EHLO string of the connecting email server
  6. Examine the SPF, DKIM, and DMARC fields from the original email

Answer(s): A,F

Explanation:

Option A is correct because evaluating scoring fields like Spam Confidence Level and Bulk Complaint Level helps determine likelihood of phishing and spam credibility. Option F is correct because SPF, DKIM, and DMARC analysis verifies sender legitimacy and email integrity, crucial for phishing assessment.
A) Incorrect — Not evaluating headers or scoring fields would miss built-in anti-spam signals; however, the primary focus is on scoring metrics.
B) Incorrect — Forwarded headers can aid lineage but are not as definitive for legitimacy as authentication results.
C) Incorrect — Recipient address field alone does not verify sender authenticity or content legitimacy.
D) Incorrect — Content-Type indicates MIME type, not sender legitimacy.
E) Incorrect — HELO/EHLO provides domain hints but is unreliable without authentication results.



A vulnerability analyst received a list of system vulnerabilities and needs to evaluate the relevant impact of the exploits on the business. Given the constraints of the current sprint, only three can be remediated. Which of the following represents the least impactful risk, given the CVSS3.1 base scores?

  1. AV:N/AC:H/PR:H/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:L - Base Score 6.0
  2. AV:N/AC:H/PR:H/UI:N/S:C/C:H/I:L/A:L - Base Score 7.2
  3. AV:N/AC:H/PR:H/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H - Base Score 6.4
  4. AV:N/AC:H/PR:H/UI:R/S:U/C:L/I:L/A:L - Base Score 6.5

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Option D is correct because it has the lowest overall impact weight among the options when considering CVSS3.1 base metrics, resulting in a lower base score of 6.5 compared to others, making it least impactful for remediation sequencing given sprint constraints.
A) Incorrect — Base Score 6.0 but has higher impact in Confidentiality/Integrity/Affect metrics relative to D, increasing overall risk profile.
B) Incorrect — Base Score 7.2 is the highest, indicating greater overall risk despite same AV/AC/PR/UI/Sort, so not least impactful.
C) Incorrect — Base Score 6.4 is lower than D’s 6.5 but other metric emphasis (Availability/Integrity) increases risk; D remains lower in practical risk assessment per CVSS factors.



A recent vulnerability scan resulted in an abnormally large number of critical and high findings that require patching. The SLA requires that the findings be remediated within a specific amount of time. Which of the following is the best approach to ensure all vulnerabilities are patched in accordance with the SLA?

  1. Integrate an IT service delivery ticketing system to track remediation and closure
  2. Create a compensating control item until the system can be fully patched
  3. Accept the risk and decommission current assets as end of life
  4. Request an exception and manually patch each system

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Option A is correct because integrating a ticketing system enables formal tracking, ownership assignment, due dates, and auditability to meet SLA-driven patch remediation. It provides measurable workflow for remediation and closure, which aligns with SOC/CS0-003 practices of tracking vulnerabilities and remediation progress.
B is incorrect because compensating controls do not satisfy SLA requirements for timely patching and may delay remediation without addressing the underlying vulnerability.
C is incorrect because decommissioning assets is not a viable or scalable remediation strategy for active vulnerabilities under an SLA.
D is incorrect because requesting an exception circumvents SLA-driven remediation timelines and does not ensure timely patch deployment across all affected systems.


Reference:

https://phoenix.security/using-slas-for-better-vulnerability-management- remediation-improving-developers-workflow/



Which of the following would help an analyst to quickly find out whether the IP address in a SIEM alert is a known-malicious IP address?

  1. Join an information sharing and analysis center specific to the company's industry
  2. Upload threat intelligence to the IPS in STIX/TAXII format
  3. Add data enrichment for IPs in the ingestion pipeline
  4. Review threat feeds after viewing the SIEM alert

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Option C is correct because adding data enrichment for IPs in the ingestion pipeline enables automatic cross-referencing of IPs against known-malicious indicators at ingest time, allowing quick determination within the SIEM workflow. A) IDS/ISAC collaboration can aid intel sharing but does not directly enrich each alert in real time. B) Uploading threat intel to an IPS in STIX/TAXII is about outbound threat intel distribution to devices, not enriching SIEM alerts post-ingestion. D) Reviewing threat feeds after the alert adds latency; enrichment should occur during ingestion for speed.


Reference:

https://ipinfo.io/use-cases/ip-data-for-data-enrichment



An organization was compromised, and the usernames and passwords of all employees were leaked online. Which of the following best describes the remediation that could reduce the impact of this situation?

  1. Multifactor authentication
  2. Password changes
  3. System hardening
  4. Password encryption

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Option B is correct because forcing password changes mitigates ongoing credential abuse after a breach by invalidating compromised credentials and prompting users to set new, unique passwords. Incorrect — A: Multifactor authentication helps prevent future compromise but does not directly address existing leaked credentials; it’s a preventive control, not remediation of current leak. Incorrect — C: System hardening reduces attack surface but does not specifically remediate leaked credentials. Incorrect — D: Password encryption protects stored credentials but does not revoke or invalidate existing compromised passwords; encryption status does not fix active credential leakage.


Reference:

https://www.makeuseof.com/compromised-credentials-insider-threats/



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