EC-Council 112-57 Exam Actual Questions
EC-Council Digital Forensics Essentials (Page 2 )

Updated On: 18-Jul-2026

Wesley, a professional hacker, deleted a confidential file in a compromised system using the “/bin/rm/” command to deny access to forensic specialists.
Identify the operating system on which Don has performed the file carving act.

  1. Windows
  2. Android
  3. Mac OS
  4. Linux

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The command path /bin/rm is a hallmark of UNIX/POSIX-style operating systems, where core userland utilities are commonly stored under directories such as /bin, /sbin, and /usr/bin. The utility rm (remove) is the standard UNIX command used to delete directory entries that reference a file’s data blocks on disk. This layout and command structure do not match Windows, which uses different filesystem conventions (drive letters, backslashes, and Windows-native executables) and does not provide /bin/rm as a native path. Android, while Linux-kernel-based, typically exposes shell utilities through environments like /system/bin (and newer systems may use toybox/busybox variants), not the classic /bin hierarchy expected on general-purpose UNIX systems. Between the remaining options, both Linux and macOS are UNIX-like and can include an rm command; however, in digital forensics training and examination contexts, the explicit reference to /bin/rm is most commonly used to indicate a Linux/UNIX command-line environment on a compromised host. Therefore, the best single-choice answer from the provided options is Linux (D).



A disk drive has 16,384 cylinders, 80 heads, and 63 sectors per track, and each sector can store 512 bytes of data.
What is the total size of the disk?

  1. 42,278,584,320 bytes
  2. 42,278,584,340 bytes
  3. 42,279,584,320 bytes
  4. 43,278,584,320 bytes

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

In classic hard-disk geometry, total capacity is computed from CHS parameters (Cylinders × Heads × Sectors per track) multiplied by bytes per sector. Forensic examiners learn this because it helps validate whether an image acquisition size is consistent with the physical disk geometry and to spot anomalies caused by misreported device geometry or capture errors.
First compute total addressable sectors:
16,384 cylinders × 80 heads = 1,310,720 tracks (because each head provides a track per cylinder).
Then multiply by sectors per track:
1,310,720 × 63 = 82,575,360 sectors.
Convert sectors to bytes using the sector size:
82,575,360 sectors × 512 bytes/sector = 42,278,584,320 bytes.
This matches option A exactly. In practice, modern drives often use LBA and may report different logical geometries, but the forensic principle remains the same: capacity equals the number of logical blocks times the logical block size, and CHS-style values are a structured way to perform that verification.



Which of the following tools helps forensic experts analyze user activity in the Microsoft Edge browser?

  1. MZHistoryView
  2. BrowsingHistoryView
  3. MZCacheView
  4. ChromeHistoryView

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

In Windows forensics, analyzing Microsoft Edge user activity commonly involves extracting and correlating browser artifacts such as visited URLs, visit counts, timestamps, download references, and cached content indicators. A practical forensic approach is to use a tool that can parse and normalize history artifacts across multiple browsers, because investigations often require comparing activity between Edge and other installed browsers on the same workstation. BrowsingHistoryView is designed specifically for that purpose: it aggregates browsing history from different browsers and presents it in a unified timeline-style view, which supports rapid triage and cross-validation of user activity.
By contrast, MZHistoryView and MZCacheView are associated with Mozilla-family artifacts (history and cache), making them appropriate for Firefox-related examinations rather than Edge. ChromeHistoryView is specialized for Google Chrome history databases and does not target Edge artifacts as its primary source. In forensic workflow terms, a multi-browser history tool is valuable because it helps identify patterns such as repeated access to specific domains, time windows of browsing activity, and correlation with other Windows artifacts (prefetch, jump lists.



Which of the following network protocols creates secure tunneling through which content obfuscation can be achieved?

  1. SNMP
  2. ARP
  3. SSH
  4. UDP

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

SSH (Secure Shell) is specifically designed to provide an encrypted channel over an untrusted network. In digital forensics and incident response, SSH is well known for supporting tunneling/port forwarding, where traffic for another protocol (for example, HTTP, database connections, or remote desktop) is encapsulated inside an SSH session. Because the SSH session encrypts payload data (and can also protect authentication and command content), the tunneled traffic becomes obfuscated to network monitoring tools that can only see metadata such as source/destination IPs, port numbers (often TCP/22), timing, and byte counts. This capability is frequently discussed in forensic references as a mechanism that can hinder content inspection and complicate attribution of user actions purely from packet payload analysis.
By contrast, SNMP is primarily for network management and monitoring, not secure tunneling. ARP resolves IP-to-MAC addresses on local networks and does not provide encryption or tunneling. UDP is a transport protocol that can carry data for many applications but provides no built-in security or tunneling features by itself. Therefore, the protocol that creates secure tunneling enabling content obfuscation is SSH (C).
event logs) to establish user intent and sequence of actions. Therefore, the correct option is BrowsingHistoryView (B).



Below are the elements included in the order of volatility for a typical computing system as per the RFC 3227 guidelines for evidence collection and archiving.
Archival media
Remote logging and monitoring data related to the target system
Routing table, process table, kernel statistics, and memory
Registers and processor cache
Physical configuration and network topology
Disk or other storage media
Temporary system files
Identify the correct sequence of order of volatility from the most to least volatile for a typical system.

  1. 7-->5-->4-->3-->2-->6-->1
  2. 4-->3-->7-->6-->2-->5-->1
  3. 2-->1-->4-->3-->6-->5-->7
  4. 4-->3-->7-->1-->2-->5-->6

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

RFC 3227’s “order of volatility” principle guides responders to collect the most perishable evidence first because some data can disappear immediately when power is lost, processes terminate, or the system state changes during response actions. The most volatile items are CPU registers and processor cache (4) because they change continuously at instruction speed and are lost instantly on shutdown or context switching. Next are routing table, process table, kernel statistics, and memory (3) because live RAM contents and active system tables can change within seconds and are lost if the machine is powered off or rebooted.
After volatile memory, temporary system files (7) are collected because they are frequently overwritten or cleaned by the OS, users, or malware. Then comes disk or other storage media (6) which is more persistent but still subject to modification, log rotation, and overwriting through normal activity; hence imaging should occur before extensive interaction.
Less volatile still are remote logging and monitoring data (2) since they may persist off-host, but can be rotated or altered by retention policies. Physical configuration and network topology (5) generally changes less frequently and can often be re-documented later. Finally, archival media (1) is the least volatile because it is typically write-once or preserved storage. Thus the correct sequence is 4→3→7→6→2→5→1 (Option B).



Bob, a security specialist at an organization, extracted the following IIS log from a Windows-based server:
“2019-12-12 06:11:41 192.168.0.10 GET /images/content/bg_body1.jpg - 80 - 192.168.0.27 Mozilla/5.0+(Windows+NT+6.3;+WOW64)+AppleWebKit/537.36+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Chrome/48. 0.2564.103+Safari/537.36 http://www.moviescope.com/css/style.css 200 0 0 365”
Identify the element in the above IIS log entry that indicates the request was fulfilled without error.

  1. 537
  2. 80
  3. 200
  4. 192

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

In Microsoft IIS (W3C Extended) logging, each request line records multiple standardized fields that help investigators reconstruct what was accessed, by whom, and with what outcome. Among these fields, the most direct indicator of whether the server successfully handled the request is the HTTP status code captured in the sc-status field. A status code of 200 means “OK”, indicating the server located the requested resource (here, /images/content/bg_body1.jpg) and returned it successfully to the client without application-level failure.
Other numbers in the entry represent different attributes: 80 is the server port used for the HTTP request, 192 values appear as part of IP addressing (client/server addresses), and 537 is embedded in the user-agent string (AppleWebKit build number), not a success indicator. IIS often logs additional substatus and Win32 status values (e.g., sc-substatus and sc-win32-status) to refine the outcome; in the shown line, those follow the 200 as “200 0 0 …”, reinforcing that no substatus error or OS-level error occurred. Therefore, 200 is the element confirming the request was fulfilled without error.



Benoy, a security professional at an organization, extracted Apache access log entries to view critical information about all the operations performed on a web server. The Apache access log extracted by Benoy is given below:
“10.10.10.10 - Jason [17/Aug/2019:00:12:34 +0300] "GET /images/content/bg_body_1.jpg HTTP/1.0" 500 1458”
Identify the HTTP status code in the Apache access log entry above that indicates the response was successful.

  1. +0300
  2. 500
  3. 1.0
  4. 2019

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

In the Apache Combined/Custom access log format, the value immediately after the quoted request (here, "GET ... HTTP/1.0") is the HTTP status code returned by the server. In the provided entry, that field is 500. From a forensic analysis standpoint, recognizing field positions matters because investigators correlate client IPs, timestamps, requested resources, and server outcomes to reconstruct attack timelines and identify failed exploitation attempts or misconfigurations.
It is important to note that successful HTTP responses are typically in the 2xx range, most commonly 200 (OK), while 3xx indicates redirects, 4xx indicates client-side errors (such as 404 Not Found), and 5xx indicates server-side failures. Specifically, 500 represents an Internal Server Error, meaning the server encountered an unexpected condition and could not fulfill the request successfully.
The other options are not HTTP status codes in this entry: +0300 is the timezone offset in the timestamp, 1.0 is the HTTP protocol version, and 2019 is part of the date. Therefore, the only HTTP status code present—and the correct choice among the options—is 500 (B), even though it reflects an error rather than success.



Andrew, a system administrator, is performing a UEFI boot process. The current phase of the UEFI boot process consists of the initialization code that the system executes after powering on the EFI system. This phase also manages platform reset events and sets up the system so that it can find, validate, install, and run the PEI.
Which of the following UEFI boot phases is the process currently in?

  1. Driver execution environment phase
  2. Boot device selection phase
  3. Pre-EFI initialization phase
  4. Security phase

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

In the UEFI/PI boot architecture, the phase that runs immediately after power-on or reset is the SEC (Security) phase. Digital forensics references include UEFI phases because firmware-level activity can affect the trustworthiness of the platform (e.g., bootkits, persistence, and measured boot artifacts). The SEC phase is responsible for executing the earliest initialization instructions, handling platform reset events, and establishing a minimal, controlled execution environment. Critically, SEC prepares the system so it can locate, verify, and hand off control to the next stage—PEI (Pre-EFI Initialization)—by setting up temporary memory and foundational CPU/chipset state required for PEI modules to execute.
The wording in the question precisely matches SEC responsibilities: “initialization code executed after powering on,” “manages platform reset events,” and “sets up the system so it can find, validate,
install, and run the PEI.” By contrast, PEI focuses on discovering and initializing permanent memory and producing the Hand-Off Blocks for DXE; DXE loads drivers and boot services; and BDS selects and launches the boot option. Therefore, the phase described is the Security phase (SEC), which corresponds to option D.



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