GAQM CPEH-001 Exam Prep
Certified Professional Ethical Hacker (CPEH) Exam (Page 18 )

• The user authenticates with the external Identity Provider.
• Salesforce receives the SAML assertion.
• Salesforce uses attributes in that assertion—such as username, email, first name, last name, and profile/community information—to create the user during the first login.
• On later logins, Salesforce updates or uses the existing user record.

• On-the-fly provisioning is a general phrase; the Salesforce capability being tested is specifically JIT provisioning.
• Salesforce APIs would require a separate integration and provisioning process.
• Identity Connect is designed primarily to synchronize users from an identity directory, not to create users at the moment of their first SAML login.

• A — Reports: Reports are informational and don’t enforce access during an SSO transaction.
• B — Apex trigger and Permission Sets: A trigger could update permissions when a Case changes, but this creates synchronization and timing issues. It also changes Salesforce permissions rather than making a direct, real-time decision for the external system.
• C — Custom SAML JIT Provisioning: JIT provisioning is primarily for creating or updating users at login. It isn’t the appropriate mechanism for dynamically querying business records and deciding whether access should be granted.
• D — Connected App Handler: Designed for custom, programmatic control during connected-app authentication and authorization. Apex can check the user’s current open classified cases and permit or reject the SSO request.

• B: Trigger.Once + scheduled job

• C: 10-minute processing-time trigger

• Due Date
• Order Date
• Delivery Date

DAX 
Order Date = 'Due Date' 
Delivery Date = 'Due Date'

• Due Date[Date] ? Sales[Due Date]
• Order Date[Date] ? Sales[Order Date]
• Delivery Date[Date] ? Sales[Delivery Date]

• A — Custom Button: A button can launch a flow, typically by passing the flow’s URL and record context.
• D — From a Process: A Process can invoke a flow using an Apex action configured for flow invocation. However, this is automation-triggered, not directly accessed by a user.
• B — Quick Action: In current Salesforce functionality, a Flow Quick Action can launch a screen flow directly from a record page. This makes B a valid modern method.
• C — Visual Workflow Launcher: This is not generally listed as a standard access method in current Salesforce terminology; Salesforce commonly uses the Flow component on Lightning pages instead.

• Field name and label
• Data type
• Reference table
• Default value
• Whether the field is mandatory or read-only
• Field attributes and configuration

• A: Labels and translations are handled through documentation and translation-related records.
• C: Table relationships may be represented through reference fields, but this is not the primary description of the Dictionary.
• D: Spell-checking language data is unrelated to the System Dictionary.

• A. Tuning system software: This is a corrective action, not an analysis method. Tuning should be based on measured performance data.
• B. User dissatisfaction reports: Useful as an indicator, but subjective and insufficient for diagnosing the cause.
• D. Off-peak utilization and response time: This may hide problems occurring during peak periods. Performance analysis should cover representative or peak workloads.

• Snapshot: Captures a point-in-time state for rollback. It is not an independent running VM and does not protect against failure of the underlying host or storage.
• Convert to dynamic disks: Changes disk allocation behavior; it does not provide redundancy or high availability.
• P2V: Converts a physical machine into a virtual machine. That is a migration process, not an availability solution.

• Microsoft Teams: Connects to Teams-related data, but it isn’t the primary connector for the Power Apps data tables.
• Personal Analytics: Provides personal productivity insights, not application data.
• SQL Server database: Only applies if the app explicitly uses SQL Server as its data source.
• Dataflows: Used for preparing and centralizing data, not as the normal direct connection to a Power Apps app.

Flat organisation

• Few levels of management
• A wide span of control—managers supervise many employees
• Shorter communication channels
• More employee autonomy and quicker decisions
• Fewer formal promotion levels

Tall organisation

• Many levels of management
• A narrow span of control—managers supervise relatively few employees
• A clear hierarchy and reporting structure
• More formal supervision and communication channels
• More obvious promotion and career stages

• Azure Machine Learning is the overall Azure service.
• Machine Learning designer is the visual, drag-and-drop interface within Azure Machine Learning.
• Microsoft may refer to the broader product as Azure Machine Learning studio, while “Designer” remains the specific visual workflow tool.

• Azure Logic Apps: Workflow and integration automation.
• Azure Batch: Large-scale parallel or batch compute.
• Azure Cosmos DB: Globally distributed NoSQL database.

• Issuer: Identifies the party issuing a SAML message—usually the identity provider in the assertion. It is not the Salesforce-specific identifier the architect should provide for differentiating Salesforce.
• Identity Provider Login URL: The endpoint where users are sent to authenticate.
• SAML identity location: Determines where the user identity is found in the SAML assertion, such as the subject or an attribute.

• Azure Resource Manager (ARM) templates define the virtual machines and related Azure resources declaratively. You can deploy the same template repeatedly, ensuring consistent VM sizes, networking, storage, extensions, and other infrastructure settings.

• PowerShell DSC extension applies and maintains the required Windows configuration inside each VM. DSC is state-based: if a setting changes or becomes incorrect, DSC can bring it back to the desired configuration.

• Azure Pipelines deployment groups organize deployment targets, but they do not primarily enforce ongoing VM configuration.
• Custom Script Extension runs setup scripts, but it is generally less maintainable and does not continuously enforce configuration like DSC.
• Pipeline stage templates reuse pipeline workflow definitions; they do not configure the VMs themselves.

• A — Add a Path for Stage: A Path lets users update the Opportunity’s Stage directly from the record page, without opening the full edit form. It can also display guidance and key fields.
• B — Use a Kanban list view: Users can move Opportunities between stages by dragging records between columns, which is ideal when Stage is the only field they normally change.

• Valor maior: mais aderência às instruções e aos detalhes descritos.
• Valor menor: mais liberdade criativa e resultados potencialmente mais variados.
• Valor excessivamente alto: pode causar artefatos ou imagens menos naturais.

• Aumentar o número de passos de geração: pode melhorar qualidade e refinamento, mas não é o principal controle de especificidade do prompt.
• MASK_IMAGE_BLACK: relaciona-se ao uso de máscara em geração ou edição de imagens, não à especificidade textual.
• Prompt strength: é mais associado à força do prompt em processos como image-to-image; nesta questão, o parâmetro diretamente ligado à aderência textual é o CFG scale.

• VM CPU, memory, disk, and network usage
• Storage transactions and latency
• App Service response time
• Database DTU or CPU utilization

• Azure Traffic Analytics analyzes network traffic flows and security patterns; it is not the general infrastructure metrics tool.
• Azure Activity Log records subscription-level control-plane operations, such as resource creation, deletion, or configuration changes.
• Azure Advisor provides recommendations about cost, security, reliability, performance, and operational excellence, but it is not the primary tool for investigating live metrics.

• Internal interface ? connected toward the corporate network/internal firewall
• External interface ? connected toward the Internet-facing firewall

1. A route for the internal corporate network through the internal-facing interface/firewall.
2. A default route (0.0.0.0/0) through the Internet-facing interface/firewall.

• A. Microsoft 365 group with Assigned membership
• C. Microsoft 365 group with Dynamic User membership

Why?

• Assigned membership: You explicitly add User1, User2, and User3.
• Dynamic User membership: Membership is automatically determined by a rule based on user attributes.

Why the other options are incorrect

• B and D: Security groups do not support the Microsoft 365 group expiration policy.
• E: Dynamic Device groups are intended for devices, not these users, and are also security groups.

• BCP (Business Continuity Plan): Ensures the organization can continue its broader business operations during and after a disruption. It is broader than the IT-focused recovery required here.
• Communication plan: Defines how information is shared with employees, the public, and other stakeholders; it does not restore systems.
• IRP (Incident Response Plan): Handles and contains security incidents, such as malware or unauthorized access. A tornado is a disaster, not primarily a cybersecurity incident.

• 10 TB with maximum I/O performance: Use EC2 instance store. It provides very high-throughput, low-latency local storage suitable for temporary video-processing data. The application must tolerate data loss because instance store is ephemeral.
• 300 TB of highly durable media: Use Amazon S3, which is designed for highly durable object storage and can scale to this size.
• 900 TB of inactive archival media: Use S3 Glacier, which provides lower-cost storage for data that is rarely accessed.

• A: Amazon EBS offers high performance but is not the best fit for the question’s “maximum possible I/O” requirement compared with local instance store.
• B: Amazon EFS is durable and shared, but is generally more expensive and less suitable for very large archival storage.
• C: Uses EC2 instance store for performance, but incorrectly uses EFS for the 300-TB durable tier and S3 rather than Glacier for archival data.

bash 
docker run -it microsoft/azure-cli:0.10.17

• docker run starts an Azure CLI container; it does not automatically connect to the AKS cluster.
• The command does not run kubectl apply.
• The container would need the appropriate Kubernetes tools and AKS credentials.
• The device or container must obtain cluster credentials, typically using an AKS credential command, before running Kubernetes commands.

bash 
az aks get-credentials --resource-group <resource-group> --name <aks-cluster> 
kubectl apply -f myapp.yaml

• Ease of exploitation
• Required privileges
• User interaction
• Impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability

• CVE: Identifies and names a specific publicly known vulnerability; it does not measure severity.
• OSINT: Refers to intelligence gathered from publicly available sources.
• SOAR: Automates and coordinates security operations, such as alert response and playbooks.

• Matching hashes suggest the file has not changed.
• Different hashes indicate that the file was modified, whether authorized or unauthorized.

• Backup: Helps recover the previous version but does not identify or stop unauthorized changes.
• File labels: Classify or mark files; they do not verify integrity.
• Security audit: May discover weaknesses or improper changes, but is periodic and not a direct technical integrity control.

• Azure Cosmos DB is a globally distributed NoSQL database service. It stores and retrieves application data, but it does not provide the tools needed to build, test, and deploy predictive analytics models.
• Azure Machine Learning—including the historical Azure Machine Learning Studio—is designed for the machine-learning lifecycle:

• Issuer: Identifies the party issuing a SAML message, commonly the IdP in the SAML assertion. It is not the Salesforce setting used to distinguish Salesforce from other service providers.
• Identity Provider Login URL: Specifies where Salesforce sends users for authentication; it does not identify Salesforce.
• SAML Identity Location: Specifies where the user identity is found in the SAML assertion, such as the subject or an attribute.

• Which Security policy matches
• Which NAT rule/translation is selected
• Which PBF rule applies
• Which route is used

text 
test security-policy-match ... 
test nat-policy-match ... 
test pbf-policy-match ... 
test routing fib-lookup ...

• R-squared (R²): mede quanto da variação dos valores reais é explicada pelo modelo. É mais usado em regressão, não em classificação.

• Accuracy (acurácia): mede a proporção de previsões corretas em relação ao total. É adequada para a classificação de imagens da questão.

• RMSE (Root Mean Squared Error): mede o tamanho médio dos erros entre valores previstos e reais, penalizando erros maiores. É usado principalmente em regressão.

• Learning rate (taxa de aprendizado): controla o tamanho dos ajustes feitos pelo modelo durante o treinamento. Não é uma métrica de avaliação; é um hiperparâmetro.

• Exploitability
• Attack complexity
• Required privileges
• User interaction
• Impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability

• CVE: Identifies and tracks a specific vulnerability; it does not primarily measure severity.
• OSINT: Open-source intelligence gathered from publicly available sources.
• SOAR: Security orchestration, automation, and response technology used to automate security workflows.

• Career enhancement — A mentor can provide guidance, advice, networking support and help the mentee identify career opportunities.
• Support with new challenges — A mentor can help the mentee think through unfamiliar situations and develop confidence and practical solutions.
• Personal development — Mentoring can improve skills such as communication, leadership, decision-making and self-awareness.

• Solving all problems — The mentor supports and guides the mentee but should not take responsibility for solving every problem.
• Discipline would be dispensed if they make a mistake — Mentoring does not remove normal accountability or workplace consequences. Mistakes should instead become learning opportunities.

• The application failing to start or becoming unhealthy
• An incorrect probe path, port, or protocol
• The application needing more startup time
• Dependency or configuration failures
• A liveness probe being too aggressive

bash 
kubectl describe pod <pod-name> 
kubectl logs <pod-name> --previous

• Scale to more replicas: may hide the issue but does not diagnose it.
• Decrease initialDelaySeconds: makes probes run earlier and could worsen startup failures.
• Drain and reboot the node: node metrics are normal, so rebooting is not justified as the first step.

• Voice devices ? VLAN 10
• Data devices ? VLAN 20
• SVI for VLAN 10 ? 192.168.10.1
• SVI for VLAN 20 ? 192.168.20.1

• A: Describes a physical trunk interface, not an SVI.
• B: An SVI can provide management access, but that is not its primary definition here.
• D: SVI does not compensate for insufficient physical ports; it is a logical interface.

1. Create or verify cost groups

1. Set up the item model group

1. Create the costing version

1. Enter or calculate item costs

1. Activate the standard costs

1. Product + ProductSubCategory: Inner join

1. Result + ProductCategory: Left outer join

• Gaia Portal: Controlled by Gaia administration settings, not SmartConsole Trusted Clients.
• SSH: Controlled by Gaia or operating-system SSH access settings.
• Security Gateway(s): SmartConsole connects to the Security Management Server, not directly to gateways for this purpose.

• IKE: Negotiates security parameters for IPsec VPNs; it does not identify switch ports.
• VLAN: A logical network segmentation method, not a discovery protocol.
• netstat: Displays local network connections and listening services, but cannot identify the physical switch or port.

• Date: 2018-12-31
• Time: 08:59

• B: The original value contains the text at, so it cannot be converted directly to a date.
• A: The last characters contain the time, not the date.
• D: Extracting the first 11 characters can leave an unwanted space and does not properly separate the time component.

• Data lakes: scalable, low-cost storage for structured, semi-structured, and unstructured data.
• Data warehouses: reliable SQL analytics, governance, and performance features.

• Data lake: Primarily provides flexible, scalable storage but may lack warehouse-style reliability and governance.
• Data warehouse: Strong for structured analytics but less flexible for raw and unstructured data.
• All of these: The individual lake and warehouse do not, by themselves, unify the siloed architecture.

• SAMLRequest: the SAML authentication request
• RelayState: the original destination or application state

• RedirectURL: not the standard SAML parameter for preserving the original request.
• DisplayState: not a standard SAML SSO parameter.
• StartURL: Salesforce-related terminology, but not the standard parameter used in this SAML exchange.

• Authentication — verifies who the user is.
• Authorization — determines what the authenticated user is allowed to access.
• Accounting — records session activity, such as login time and resource usage.

• CIA — confidentiality, integrity, and availability; core security objectives.
• ACL — access control list; rules that permit or deny traffic or access.
• PEM — Privacy Enhanced Mail, an older email security standard.

kusto 
Event 
| summarize make_set(EventID) by Computer

• summarize groups records.
• by Computer creates one result row per virtual machine.
• make_set(EventID) returns an array containing unique event IDs for that computer.

kusto 
| summarize make_list(EventID) by Computer

• Espionage: Stealing information for intelligence or competitive purposes.
• Data exfiltration: Unauthorized removal or transfer of data.
• Nation-state attack: A sophisticated attack sponsored by a government.
• Shadow IT: Unapproved technology or access methods used by employees.

• A — Correct: Flow Builder is declarative and visual, so administrators and other non-developers can participate in designing and improving business processes without writing Apex.
• D — Correct: Flow Builder provides visual debugging tools, allowing an admin to test paths, inspect variable values, and identify where a specific business case fails.
• E — Correct: A flow’s visual structure documents the logic and makes later maintenance easier than reading and updating custom Apex code.

• B — Incorrect: Flow debugging does not attach a debugger to live customer sessions. The admin uses Flow Builder’s debug functionality with test inputs; this is not live-session debugging and should not be used to monitor real customer transactions.

1. Identify the fact table

• Records something that happened, such as a sale, test, appointment, or measurement
• Contains foreign keys to other tables
• Contains measures or numeric results
• Has many rows

2. Identify a dimension table

• Describe people, products, dates, locations, or departments
• Contain descriptive columns
• Are referenced by the fact table
• Have fewer rows than the fact table

3. Identify the surrogate key

• System-generated
• Unique within the dimension
• Often named PatientKey, CustomerKey, or similar
• Usually an integer
• Not meaningful outside the model

• The files are stored in a document library, which is exposed through the SharePoint Folder connector.
• The connector returns file metadata, including Folder Path, Name, and Content.
• In Power Query, filter Folder Path so only files in the manufacturing reports folder are retained.
• You can then combine the remaining Excel files because they all have the same structure.

• SharePoint List is for SharePoint lists, not document-library files.
• Combine & Load combines files immediately, before you filter to the required folder, and may include unwanted files.
• Transform gives you the opportunity to filter the file list first, which is more efficient and targeted.

• Use one Azure AD directory for the organization.
• Separate divisions with subscriptions and/or resource groups.
• Assign each division’s administrator appropriate Azure role-based access control (RBAC) permissions, scoped to their subscription or resource group.

• The servers run different operating systems: Windows, Linux, and Unix.
• Containers generally share the host operating system’s kernel, so they cannot normally run workloads requiring unrelated kernels, such as Windows and Linux, on the same Linux host.
• A hypervisor can create separate virtual machines, allowing each VM to run its own guest OS.
• A Type 2 hypervisor runs on top of a host operating system and can support multiple guest operating systems.

• The legacy system creates a signed JWT assertion.
• Salesforce validates the assertion using a certificate configured on a Connected App.
• Salesforce issues an access token for the integration user.
• No refresh token is required; the system can request a new access token when needed.

• Web Server Flow: normally uses a client secret and authorization/refresh tokens.
• Username-Password Flow: requires storing Salesforce credentials and is discouraged for integrations where stronger options are available.
• User Agent Flow: intended for user-interactive applications, not unattended server-to-server processing.

• Updating the CRL: Revokes compromised certificates, but does not fix the CA flaw that allowed them to be created.
• Changing passwords: May be necessary if accounts were compromised, but it does not address the certificate-generation vulnerability.
• Implementing SOAR: Improves security automation and response; it does not remediate the underlying PKI weakness.

• Guiding principles
• Governance
• Service value chain
• Practices
• Continual improvement

• Guiding principles: Recommendations that guide decisions and actions; they do not describe the entire system.
• Four dimensions: Perspectives used to ensure a balanced approach to service management.
• Service relationship: Describes cooperation between a service provider and service consumer, rather than the whole value-creation system.