Free NCLEX-RN Exam Braindumps (page: 210)

Page 210 of 431

A 67-year-old man had a physical examination prior to beginning volunteer work at the hospital. A routine chest x-ray demonstrated left ventricular hypertrophy. His blood pressure was 180/110. He is 45 lb overweight. His diet is high in sodium and fat. He has a strong family history of hypertension. The client is placed on antihypertensive medication; a low-sodium, low-fat diet; and an exercise regimen. On his next visit, compliance would best be determined by:

  1. A blood pressure reading of 130/70 with a 5-lb weight loss
  2. No side effects from antihypertensive medication and an accurate pill count
  3. No evidence of increased left ventricular hypertrophy on chest x-ray
  4. Serum blood levels of the antihypertensive medication within therapeutic range

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

(A) A blood pressure within acceptable range best demonstrates compliance, but weight loss cannot be accomplished without adherence to medication, diet, and exercise. (B) Absence of side effects does not indicate compliance with medication. Pill counts can be misleading because the client can alter pill counts prior to visit. (C) Left ventricular hypertrophy is not an accurate measure of compliance because hypertrophy frequently does not decrease even with pharmacological management. (D) Therapeutic blood levels measure the drug level at the time of the test. There is no indication of compliance several days before testing.



A 67-year-old man had a physical examination prior to beginning volunteer work at the hospital. A routine chest x-ray demonstrated left ventricular hypertrophy. His blood pressure was 180/110. He is 45 lb overweight. His diet is high in sodium and fat. He has a strong family history of hypertension. The client is placed on antihypertensive medication; a low-sodium, low-fat diet; and an exercise regimen. On his next visit, compliance would best be determined by:

  1. A blood pressure reading of 130/70 with a 5-lb weight loss
  2. No side effects from antihypertensive medication and an accurate pill count
  3. No evidence of increased left ventricular hypertrophy on chest x-ray
  4. Serum blood levels of the antihypertensive medication within therapeutic range

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

(A) A blood pressure within acceptable range best demonstrates compliance, but weight loss cannot be accomplished without adherence to medication, diet, and exercise. (B) Absence of side effects does not indicate compliance with medication. Pill counts can be misleading because the client can alter pill counts prior to visit. (C) Left ventricular hypertrophy is not an accurate measure of compliance because hypertrophy frequently does not decrease even with pharmacological management. (D) Therapeutic blood levels measure the drug level at the time of the test. There is no indication of compliance several days before testing.



A school-age child with asthma is ready for discharge from the hospital. His physician has written an order to continue the theophylline given in the hospital as an oral home medication. Immediately prior to discharge, he complains of nausea and becomes irritable. His vital signs were normal except for tachycardia. What first nursing actions would be essential in this situation?

  1. Hold the child's discharge for 1 hour.
  2. Notify the physician immediately.
  3. Discharge the child as the physician ordered.
  4. Administer an antiemetic as necessary.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

(A) Holding the child's discharge alone does not address the client's problem. (B) Nausea, tachycardia, and irritability are all symptoms of theophylline toxicity. The physician should benotified immediately so that a serum theophylline level can be ordered. Theophylline dose should be withheld until the physician is notified. (C) The child must be evaluated for theophylline toxicity before any discharge. (D) Cause of the nausea should be investigated before the administration of an antiemetic.



A school-age child with asthma is ready for discharge from the hospital. His physician has written an order to continue the theophylline given in the hospital as an oral home medication. Immediately prior to discharge, he complains of nausea and becomes irritable. His vital signs were normal except for tachycardia. What first nursing actions would be essential in this situation?

  1. Hold the child's discharge for 1 hour.
  2. Notify the physician immediately.
  3. Discharge the child as the physician ordered.
  4. Administer an antiemetic as necessary.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

(A) Holding the child's discharge alone does not address the client's problem. (B) Nausea, tachycardia, and irritability are all symptoms of theophylline toxicity. The physician should benotified immediately so that a serum theophylline level can be ordered. Theophylline dose should be withheld until the physician is notified. (C) The child must be evaluated for theophylline toxicity before any discharge. (D) Cause of the nausea should be investigated before the administration of an antiemetic.



Page 210 of 431



Post your Comments and Discuss NCLEX NCLEX-RN exam with other Community members:

Naveen Ahlam commented on November 29, 2024
Great stuff
Anonymous
upvote

Isadora Guimarães commented on November 10, 2024
Very good to study
UNITED STATES
upvote

Marydee commented on April 02, 2020
Just purchased, will see if it is the real deal. Will give a further update later!
Anonymous
upvote